Lets say you have a free particle in a rotating frame of reference with constant angular velocity $\mathbf{\omega}$. By free, I mean there are no real forces on it. Lets call the moving system "primed".
The equation of the motion is $m\mathbf{a} = \mathbf{F} + \mathbf{F_{fic}}$ but $F = 0$ and the only fictitious forces acting on this particle are the centrifugal force and the coriolis force.
Just to double checked, 1) there is no azimuthal (or transverse) force since there is no angular acceleration. Correct?
2) And ofcourse there is no translation force since the origin of the primed and nonprimed systems are the same? Right?
Okay so lets assume I am right (which I am since I am following an example from a text :P) So we have $$m\mathbf{a} = −m \mathbf{\omega} × (\mathbf{\omega} × \mathbf{r'}) − 2m \mathbf{\omega} × \mathbf{v}'$$
Lets making the rotating axis fixed with the z axis so $\mathbf{w} = \omega \cdot \mathbf{e_z}$
$$\omega = \omega \mathbf{e_z} $$ $$\mathbf{r} = x \mathbf{e_x} + y \mathbf{e_y} + z \mathbf{e_z} $$ and similarly v is pretty much r, but x = x dot, and such. Don't know how to write x dot with latex.
So my main problem is that for example lets say we are calculating the x component of everything. So then in the equation the coriolis force has a cross product between $e_z$ and $e_x$. This is $e_y$. I get that, but how do I know what sign is it? How come $e_z$ and $e_y$ gives me A NEGATIVE $e_x$?
I am on page 11 of this pdf, http://www.mech.kth.se/~hanno/RelativeMotion.pdf.
I am also confused about how $e_x$ crossed with $e_z$ gives you "y dot" and not "x dot" Look at the pdf (specifically the coriolis force term).