The other day in class the professor was explaining non-inertial reference frames. We were working out how to find the acceleration of a point as measured from the non-inertial reference frame, and one problem was finding the time derivatives of the unit vectors as measured from the non-inertial reference frame.
To explain how to do it, he drew a nice diagram that showed that, if $\mathbf{\Omega}$ is the vector representing angular velocity of the rotation of $\hat{\imath}$ (that is, its direction is the axis of rotation), then $\frac{\mathrm{d}\hat{\imath}}{\mathrm{d}t} = \mathbf{\Omega} \times \hat{\imath}$. This makes sense. Next, he said that we can use the same argument for the other unit vectors: $\frac{\mathrm{d}\hat{\jmath}}{\mathrm{d}t} = \mathbf{\Omega} \times \hat{\jmath}$ and $\frac{\mathrm{d}\hat{k}}{\mathrm{d}t} = \mathbf{\Omega} \times \hat{k}$. I don't understand why we use the same $\mathbf{\Omega}$ for all of them. Since their axes of rotation are different, shouldn't we use different angular velocity vectors?