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Suppose an object (aeroplane be better) having 1m/s² acceleration, started its journey from north pole towards south pole. Crossing south pole it reached north pole again.

So, here displacement is 0 meter (as the initial point and the final point are the same). If we neglect the frictional force of air... can we say there is no work done by the force which made the object accelerated?

Thanks

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There are two types of work.`the work done by a conservative force is path independent ,and work by nonconservative is path dependent.so the work done need not be always zero.

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  • $\begingroup$ So...here...what type of work is it? Reply please $\endgroup$
    – Iftikhar Saqlain
    Commented Mar 3, 2021 at 17:06
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It is not zero, because the work done by a force is defined by a line integral. The work done by the force that accelerated the object is

$$W=\int_{\vec{r}_0}^{\vec{r}_f}\vec{F}\cdot d\vec{r},$$

being $\vec{r}_0$ the point where the force began to act, and $\vec{r}_f$ the point where it stopped being applied. If the force is constant (you said that the acceleration is, for example, $1 \text{m/s}^2$) and parallel to the displacement, the work would be $W=F\cdot d$, being $d$ the lenght of the path followed while the force was being applied.

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