1
$\begingroup$

I know the annihilation operator has eigen-states

$\hat{\alpha} |\alpha \rangle = {\alpha} |\alpha \rangle $

I also know the creation operator $\alpha^{\dagger}$ has no eigenstates. Is the following a correct proof of this fact

The annihilation operator has eigen-states

$\hat{\alpha} |\alpha \rangle = {\alpha} |\alpha \rangle $

Let's suppose the creation operator did infact have eigen-states as follows

$\hat{\alpha}^{\dagger} |\beta \rangle = {\beta} |\beta \rangle $

Taking dagger on both sides I get

$\langle \beta | \hat{\alpha} = {\beta^{*}} \langle \beta | $

But this implies $|\beta\rangle$ is an eigen-state of $\hat{\alpha}$ with eigen-value $\beta^{*}$

Now since $\hat{\alpha}$ and $\hat{\alpha}^{\dagger}$ do not commute, hence they share no similar eigen-states, hence this contradicts the assumption that the $\hat{\alpha}^{\dagger}$ has eigen-states.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ I think you are failing to distinguish between the right and the left eigenstates. These are not the same for a non-hermitian operator. $\endgroup$
    – Roger V.
    Commented Dec 9, 2020 at 8:52
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks, thats where i was unsure really, because technically the bra is the eigenstate in what i did, not the ket $\endgroup$
    – Dk65
    Commented Dec 9, 2020 at 8:56

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

What you have presented cannot be a proof, for it is symmetric wrt interchanging $a$ and $a^\dagger$, you haven't used the property that tells them apart, i.e. $[a,a^\dagger]=1$. You can argue like that, assume there is an eigenstate of $a^\dagger$. It can be written in the following form \begin{equation} | \alpha \rangle = \sum_{n=0}^\infty C_n (a^\dagger)^n | 0 \rangle. \end{equation} Using the defining property of an eigenstate we get \begin{equation} \sum_{n=0}^\infty C_n (a^\dagger)^{n+1} | 0 \rangle=\alpha\sum_{n=0}^\infty C_n (a^\dagger)^{n} | 0 \rangle, \end{equation} which can be rewritten as \begin{equation} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \left ( C_{n-1}-\alpha C_n \right ) (a^\dagger)^{n} | 0 \rangle=\alpha C_0 | 0 \rangle, \end{equation} that in turn cannot be satisfied, since all $(a^{\dagger})^n | 0 \rangle$ are linearly independent.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ okay thanks that makes sense, I was wondering if my proof would work if i had apriori knowledge that eigenstates for the annihilation operator exist. Then could I use my argument? $\endgroup$
    – Dk65
    Commented Dec 9, 2020 at 8:54
  • $\begingroup$ As I said, no. Turn it around and assume that there exist an eigenstate of $a$, and follow the same steps as in you suggested proof. You would have to conclude that it does not exist. $\endgroup$
    – nwolijin
    Commented Dec 9, 2020 at 8:57

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.