Consider the coherent state
$$ |\phi \rangle = \exp \left( \zeta \cdot \sum_\alpha \phi_{\alpha} a_{\alpha}^\dagger \right) | 0 \rangle.$$
For the case of bosons ($\zeta = +1$), the $\phi_\alpha$'s are $c$-numbers and the creation and annihilation operators satisfy some commutation relations. For the case of fermions ($\zeta=-1$), the creation and annihilation operators satisfy some anticommutation relations and the $\phi_\alpha$'s are Grassmann numbers. In both cases the coherent states diagonalize the corresponding annihilation operator:
$$a_\alpha |\phi \rangle = \phi_\alpha |\phi \rangle .$$
It is said that while fermionic coherent states have no classical counterpart, bosonic coherent states are like the classical limit of quantum states. Why? For instance in the answer to this question they say it's because in these states the bosonic creation and annihilation operators commute, which is what "operators" do in classical physics. On the other hand, the exact anticommutation of fermionic annihilation doesn't emulate any classical behaviour. This would explain it. However I don't see that bosonic creation and annihilation operators commute exactly when acting upon coherent states. In the coherent state representation $a_\alpha = \phi_\alpha$ and $a_\alpha^\dagger = \frac{\partial}{\partial \phi_\alpha}$, whence
$$[a_\alpha^\dagger, a_\alpha, ] | \phi\rangle = \frac{\partial}{\partial \phi_\alpha} \left( \phi_ \alpha | \phi \rangle \right) - \phi_\alpha \frac{\partial}{\partial \phi_\alpha} | \phi \rangle = | \phi \rangle$$
which is the usual commutation relation $[a_\alpha^\dagger, a_\beta] = \delta_{\alpha, \beta}$. So the operators don't commute as they should classically. What am I missing? If this is not the reason for saying things like "bosonic coherent states arise when taking the classical limit of quantum states", then what is?