I have a question about an statement that is said in the paper Entanglement and spontaneous symmetry breaking in quantum spin models (Phys. Rev. A 68, 060301(R), (2013)). It is related to the XXZ model in 1 dimension, given by
\begin{equation} H_\text{xxz} = \sum_{\langle i, j\rangle} -[\sigma^x_i\sigma^x_j + \sigma_i^y\sigma^y_j] + \Delta \sigma^z_i\sigma^z_j. \end{equation}
In that article it is said that this system presents $U(1)$ symmetry (which I understand as the Hamiltonian commutes with $S_z = \frac{1}{2}\sum^N_i\sigma_i^z$), and also that ''a global $\pi$ rotation about the spin $x$ (or $y$) axis is also a symmetry ($Z_2$).
My question is related to this last symmetry. If I perform a rotation around the $x$ axis, for instance, then I should make the change $\sigma^y_i \rightarrow -\sigma^y_i$ and $\sigma^z_i \rightarrow -\sigma^z_i$ over the previous Hamiltonian (and as the transformation it is global, over each site $i$), which leaves it invariant. However, in this article is also said that for values of $|\Delta| \geq 1$, this symmetry can be broken in one dimensional systems, which is something that I don't see quite clear, as according to the previous transformation, the change in sign is independent of $\Delta$. So I don't know if the transformation that I have described for the $Z_2$ is incorrect. Can somebody help me?