The lagrangian of the Real Scalar Field $\phi$ is given by
\begin{equation} \mathcal{L} = \frac{1}{2}\eta^{\mu \nu} \partial _\mu \phi \partial _{\nu} \phi - \frac{1}{2} m^2 \phi^2 \end{equation} \begin{equation} \eta^{\mu \nu} = diag(+1,-1,-1,-1) \end{equation} But what is the real motivation behind this equation?
I've read in several books this equation. In some books it is "defined", in others is given a completely unsatisfactory derivation for this equation , like "let's make an analogy with a coupled oscillators system". I've understood that the natural units makes the Lagrangian have dimension of $[mass]^4$ and the fact that the Lagrangian must be a Lorentz Invariant so the derivatives of the field must be $\partial _\mu \phi$, but how can i get the "1/2" coefficient in this Lagrangian and where does come from this "$m^2 \phi^2$? The "$m$" coefficient is the mass of the field or its just a constant with dimension of mass? Please help with this issue.