In many papers that cover an analysis of Hall effects, the spin Hall effect is often qualitatively described as being nearly the same as the anomalous Hall effect except for the fact that it doesn't cause a traverse voltage drop across the sample. It is said in these papers that this is because materials that exhibit spin Hall effects have equal populations of spin-up and spin-down electrons while materials that exhibit anomalous Hall effects do not.
However, this paper 1 is implicitly based on the notion that materials can exhibit anomalous Hall and spin Hall effects concurrently. I have no chance of understanding this paper until I have a coherent qualitative understanding of what the actual difference is between anomalous and spin Hall effects, but I cannot find a clear explanation anywhere.
Could someone please help me understand the actual difference between anomalous Hall and spin Hall effects?
Reference:
- Y. Zhang et al., "Strong, anisotropic anomalous Hall effect and spin Hall effect in chiral antiferromagnetic compounds Mn3X (X = Ge, Sn, Ga, Ir, Rh and Pt)", Phys. Rev. B 95, 075128 (2017), arXiv:1610.04034.