Whilst researching Maxwell's Equations (here), I found (effectively) the following pieces of logic:
$$\int_S \left(\nabla \times \boldsymbol{H}\right) \cdot d\boldsymbol{S} = \oint \boldsymbol{H} \cdot d\boldsymbol{L}$$ $$\oint \boldsymbol{H} \cdot d\boldsymbol{L} = \int_S \boldsymbol{J}\cdot d\boldsymbol{S}=I_{enclosed}$$
Taking the surface to be that of a circle, the author says:
$$2\pi r H=I_{enclosed}$$
Which he rearranges to:
$$H=\frac{I_{enclosed}}{2\pi r}$$
However, at this point the author notes that the $H$ field is in fact a vector field, and as such, he makes the addendum that:
The direction of the H-field is everywhere tangential to the imaginary loops.
And he then says that this is defined by the right hand rule. So me, that would imply something like the following formula:
$$2\pi \boldsymbol{H} \times \boldsymbol{r} = \boldsymbol{I}$$
However, I can think of no way to prove this formula, and the proof of the author's statement about the direction is simply glossed over. I have spent some time researching vector calculus identities, but have yet to find anything which might help explain what looks to me like a small logical jump.
Thank you for your time, and my apologies if this is in some way a stupid question!