I have the wave function $\psi (x) =A \sin (kx) $ for $- \infty <x< \infty$ and want to find all the possible values for momentum and $\Delta p$ . I have the solution but I can't understand it, my professor says that the possible values are $p= \pm \hbar k$,can someone explain how do we get to this? Also after finding $\langle p \rangle =0$ my professor finds $\langle p^2 \rangle = \frac{1}{2} \hbar^2 k^2 + \frac{1}{2} \hbar^2 k^2$, can you explain that?
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$\begingroup$ Hi and welcome to PSE. This is not trolling you, but writing in the variables that you do understand would help a lot, otherwise it's a bit "do my homework" $\endgroup$– user175021Commented Nov 14, 2017 at 21:36
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$\begingroup$ Do you know how to write $p$ as an operator? $\endgroup$– probably_someoneCommented Nov 14, 2017 at 21:38
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$\begingroup$ I know that the possible values for $p$ comes from de Broglie formula, but I can't understand how $k$ and the plus minus sign appear. $\endgroup$– DimtsolCommented Nov 14, 2017 at 21:43
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$\begingroup$ $k=2\pi/\lambda$. The de Broglie wavelength only tells you the magnitude of the momentum, not its direction. $\endgroup$– probably_someoneCommented Nov 14, 2017 at 21:49
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$\begingroup$ Also if I try to find $\langle p^2 \rangle$ with the usual way i. e. $\int_{- \infty}^{\infty} \psi^* \hbar^2 \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi$ I can't compute the integral at those limits. $\endgroup$– DimtsolCommented Nov 14, 2017 at 21:50
1 Answer
I actually don't think this question makes much sense since your wave function $\psi(x)$ is not normalizable, but if you are willing to blindly accept (1) below then you can possibly understand the manipulations of your instructor.
If you know that $\phi(x)=e^{ikx}$ describes a state of momentum $+k$, then it's no surprise that $$ \psi(x)=A\sin(kx)=\frac{A}{2i} \left(e^{ikx}-e^{-ikx}\right) $$ describes a state that is a superposition of $+k$ and $-k$. The probability of getting $+k$ is the same as the probability of getting $-k$ since the coefficient $\vert A/2i\vert^2$ in front of each factor in the superposition is the same.
If the probability of obtaining $+k$ and $-k$ is the same, then the average value of $k$ will be $0$, irrespective of the constant $A$.
As to $\langle p^2\rangle$, note that $p^2\psi(x)=\hbar^2k^2\psi(x)$ so $$ \langle p^2\rangle =\frac{\int_{-\infty}^\infty dx\,\psi^*(x)\hbar^2k^2\psi(x)} {\int_{-\infty}^\infty dx\,\psi^*(x)\psi(x)}= \hbar^2k^2 \frac{\int_{-\infty}^\infty dx\,\psi^*(x)\psi(x)} {\int_{-\infty}^\infty dx\,\psi^*(x)\psi(x)}=\hbar^2k^2 $$ assuming (somewhat blindly) $$ \frac{\int_{-\infty}^\infty dx\,\psi^*(x)\psi(x)}{\int_{-\infty}^\infty dx\,\psi^*(x)\psi(x)}=1\, . \tag{1} $$
You are right in being suspicious about the convergence of the integral $\int_{-\infty}^\infty dx\,\psi^*(x)\psi(x)$.