3
$\begingroup$

Something about all this stuff I am not getting. Given the following wave function $$\psi = Ne^{\frac{-x^2}{\Delta^2}}e^{ik_0 x}$$ Where $N$ is the normalization constant, $N= \left(\frac{1}{\Delta\sqrt{\pi}}\right)^{1/2}$. I need to find the average momentum, $\langle p\rangle$, two ways. $$ \langle p\rangle = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}~\mathrm dx\psi^*\left(-i\hbar\frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dx}\right)\psi=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{~\mathrm dp}{2\pi}|\phi|^2p $$ Question: What is this second integral? I do not know what $\phi$ is. Any help for the context of this would be greatly appreciated. I do not know where to start with that integral.

Solving the first integral: For the first integral, which is using the momentum operator. I evaluated the derivative of the wave function first. $$\frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dx}e^{-\frac{x^2}{\Delta^2}+ik_0x}=\left(\frac{-2x}{\Delta^2}+ik_0\right)e^{-\frac{x^2}{\Delta^2}+ik_0x}$$ Taking note that $\psi^*\psi$ removes the complex part and multiplies a 2 to the real part of the exponent. I should get something like this: $$\langle p\rangle=(-i\hbar)N^2\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}~\mathrm dx \left(\frac{-2x}{\Delta^2}+ik_0\right)e^{-\frac{2x^2}{\Delta^2}}$$ Which I can split into two integrals. One of the integrals is odd and evaluates to $0$. The other remains. $$=(-i\hbar)N^2\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}~\mathrm dx(ik_0)e^{-\frac{2x^2}{\Delta^2}}$$ Which is a the Gaussian integral and the solution to this is $$\begin{align} &=N^2k_0\sqrt{\frac{\pi\Delta}{2}}=\frac{k_0}{\Delta\sqrt{\pi}}\sqrt{\frac{\pi\Delta}{2}}\\ &=\sqrt{\frac{k_0^2}{2\Delta}}=\langle p\rangle\end{align} $$

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

4
$\begingroup$

$\phi$ is the wave function in momentum space: If $\psi(x)=\langle x|\Psi\rangle$, then $\phi(p)=\langle p|\Psi\rangle$. This is why the momentum operator can be evaluated directly: $$\hat p|\phi\rangle = p|\phi\rangle$$ and the integration is going over the momenta.

The calculation of the first integral looks fine to me upon a quick look, though I didn't check all the details.

$\endgroup$
5
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you, you answer has been very helpful. What would $\phi$ be with this wave equation? How do I go from position space to momentum space? $\endgroup$
    – Tsangares
    Oct 16, 2016 at 6:50
  • $\begingroup$ en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Position_and_momentum_space $\endgroup$
    – anna v
    Oct 16, 2016 at 6:58
  • $\begingroup$ With a Fourier transform, which you can see by inserting a unity operator expanded in $x$ basis: $$\psi(p) = \langle p|\Psi\rangle = \int d^3x\langle p|x\rangle\langle x|\Psi\rangle = \int d^3 x \exp(ipx)\psi(x)$$ since $$\langle p|x\rangle = \exp(ipx)$$ $\endgroup$
    – Photon
    Oct 16, 2016 at 7:01
  • $\begingroup$ A lot of stuff is starting to make sense. Is $\Psi$ the time dependent wave function? $\endgroup$
    – Tsangares
    Oct 16, 2016 at 21:13
  • $\begingroup$ $\Psi$ is not a wave function, it is a ket, $\psi(x)$ is a wave function. Since in this particular exercise $\psi(x)$ is explicitly given and is time independent, the answer is: No, it is not time dependent. But in principle it could also have been time dependent, the calculation would work the same way. $\endgroup$
    – Photon
    Oct 16, 2016 at 21:18

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.