I would like to understand the transition amplitude given by the path integral as it is presented in Srednicki's book in formula (8.3):
$<0|0>_J = \int D\phi \exp[i \int d^4x [L_0 + J\phi]$. (8.3)
Apparently it is not equal to 1 as it is shown only a couple of lines later. However, only 19 pages before the normalization of ground state stated to be:
$<0|0>=1.$ (5.4).
Unfortunately Srednicki does not clearly say if $|0>$ represents a ground state of an interacting QFT, however, as the normalization of $|0>$ is stated at the beginning of the explanation of LSZ, I strongly assume that $|0>$ represents the ground state of an interacting QFT. The consultation of Peskin &Schroeder (P&S) also supports this. So if this is the case, I consider $L=L_0 + J\phi$ as the Lagrangian of an interacting QFT, so I don't see a reason why $<0|0>_J$ should not be equal 1. In particular if the considered QFT is QED, the corresponding current $J^\mu$ has clear physical meaning as Dirac current, for this well-known interacting QFT $<0|0>_J$ should be equal $=<0|0>=1$ according to (5.4).
Unfortunately, it comes even worse. According to the middle of p.55 of Srednicki $<0|0>_{J=0}=1$. So for a free QFT the ground state seems to be indeed normalized. However, consulting P&S on the subject, I found the following:
the first = sign according to Srednicki, the rest according to P&S:
$<0|0>_{J=0}=\int D\phi\, e^{S_0} =\cdots = \Pi_{all\, k_n} \sqrt{\frac{-i\pi V}{m^2-k_n^2}}$ (9.23) with $\,\,S_0= \int d^4x [\frac{1}{2}(\partial_\mu \phi)^2-\frac{1}{2}m^2\phi^2\,\,$] P&S(9.19)
(P&S gets this result by a discretization of the path integral.)
which is a obviously a free QFT, but the transition amplitude is not 1. Definition of $k_n$: $k_n=\frac{2\pi n^\mu}{L}$ with $n^\mu$ an integer $|k^\mu|<\pi/\epsilon$ and $V=L^4$.
May be Srednicki wants to say $<0( T=\infty)| 0 (T=-\infty)>=\int D\phi e^{S_0}$ when he writes $<0|0>_{J=0}=\int D\phi\, e^{S_0}$ ?
However, is the ground state supposed to change in time ? My intuition tells me no. So for me the whole concept is rather shaky and confusing. I really would appreciate if somebody shows me the real meaning of $<0|0>_{J}$ and its difference to $<0|0>=1$ and even show why $<0|0>_{J=0} \neq 1$ apparently sometimes.