I was trying to see when angular momentum is independent of choice of origin, but then it seems angular momentum no longer conserved under Galileo transformation to me :
Given a point mass is doing circular orbital motion in an inertial frame: $$\vec L = \vec r \times \vec p $$
In a new relatively stationary frame with displacement $\vec R$:$^{\dagger}$
$$\vec {L'}=\vec {r'} \times \vec {p'}$$ $$\vec {L'}=({\vec R +\vec {r}} )\times \vec {p}$$
$$\vec {L'}=({\vec R +\vec {r}} )\times \vec {p}$$
Take time derivative: $$\dot {\vec {L'}}=({\dot{\vec R} +\dot{\vec {r}}} )\times \vec {p} +({\vec R +\vec {r}} )\times \dot{\vec {p}}$$ $$\dot {\vec {L'}}=0 +({\vec R +\vec {r}} )\times \dot{\vec {p}}$$ Given angular momentum is conserved in an orbital motion in the old frame ($\vec {r} \times \dot{\vec {p}} = 0$): $$\dot {\vec {L'}}=\vec R \times \dot{\vec {p}}$$ However, this term is not always zero - it is absurd, since we will not have a new torque by picking up a new stationary inertial frame.
What's wrong with my reasoning?
$\dagger$: both $\vec p$ and $\vec {p'}$ should be same in both inertial frames.