So there's a natural isomorphism
$$
\varphi: H^{\oplus 3} \to H \otimes \mathbb R^3\\
(a, b, c) \mapsto a \otimes e_0 + b \otimes e_1 + c \otimes e_2
$$
where $e_i$ is a basis for $\mathbb R^3$.
The definition you're objecting to is
$$
\hat{\vec{x}}: H \to H^{\oplus 3}\\
v \mapsto (\hat x(v), ~ \hat y(v) , ~\hat z(v))
$$
You can convert it to your version by composing with the above isomorphism.
$$
\tilde x \equiv \varphi \circ \hat{\vec{x}}:~~ H \to H \otimes \mathbb R^3\\
v \mapsto \hat x(v) \otimes e_0 + ~ \hat y(v) \otimes e_1 + ~\hat z(v)\otimes e_2
$$
So your definition makes complete sense.
Comments
So this answers the question as stated. Judging by your comments on other answers I think you're looking for a nicer way to formalize the annoying statement 'blah operator transforms under blah group like a vector'. Whether this definition yields what you want should be the subject of another question.
Namely I think you're hoping somehow conjugation by a representation of the group will factor through your tensor product and have the group action on $\mathbb R^3$ just act on the second factor. Spent a couple of minutes trying to naively get this to work without much luck, will update if there's progress, or at least give a better explanation of why not.
Edit
I'm going to describe how this construct makes the "covariance under conjugation by some representation of some action on $\mathbb R^3$" condition more explicit, as OP had hoped.
For clarity let's start by giving a name to the operation of conjugating this "vector operator".
Let $G$ be some group that admits an action on $\mathbb R^3$. Let $U: G \to H$ be a unitary representation of $G$ on $H$. Define, for any $R \in G$
\begin{align}
C_R: \mathrm{Mor}(H, H^{\oplus 3}) &\to \mathrm{Mor}(H, H^{\oplus 3})\\
f(\cdot) &\mapsto (U(R) f(\cdot)^i U(R)^\dagger)_{i \in (0, 1, 2)}
\end{align}
where $\mathrm{Mor}(V, W)$ is collection of linear maps $V \to W$. This is just a name for component-wise conjugation of this tuple of operators.
Now the main claim
Proposition
The statement
$$
C_R(\hat{\vec{x}}) = \left(\sum_{j}R_{ij}\hat{\vec{x}}(v)^j\right)_{i \in (0, 1, 2)}
$$
is equivalent to
$$
\varphi \circ C_R(\hat{\vec{x}}) = (1 \otimes R)(\varphi \circ \hat{\vec{x}})
$$
Proof
For brevity we give the $\implies$ direction, the other direction should be obvious from the same computation
\begin{align}
\varphi\left(\left(\sum_{j}R_{ij}\hat{\vec{x}}(v)^j\right)_{i \in (0, 1, 2)}\right)
&= \sum_i\left(\sum_{j} R_{ij} \hat{\vec{x}}(v)^j\right) \otimes e_i \\
&= \sum_{ij} \hat{\vec{x}}(v)^j \otimes R_{ij}e_i\\
&=\sum_{j} \left(\hat{\vec{x}}(v)^j \otimes \sum_i R_{ij}e_i\right)\\
&= (1 \otimes R)\left(\sum_{j} \hat{\vec{x}}^j(v) \otimes e_j \right)\\
&=(1 \otimes R)\left(\varphi(\hat{\vec{x}(v)}) \right)
\end{align}