For a chain with spacing $a$, the action is
$$S=\int dt\sum_i \left(\frac{M}{2}\dot\phi^2_i-\frac{k}{2}(\phi_{i+1}-\phi_i)^2\right)$$
which only has a translational symmetry. When you take the continuous limit, that is $a\rightarrow0$, $M/a=\rho $, the action of string becomes
$$S=\int dt \, dx \, \left( \frac{\rho}{2}\dot\phi(t,x)^2-\frac{T}{2}(\partial_x\phi(t,x))^2\right).$$
It is obvious that the action above has quasi "Lorentz symmetry" with $c=v_s$ where $v_s$ is the sound velocity. Why will this kind of Lorentz symmetry emerge in a totally classical mechanics problem?