Why only the subgroup of orthochronous and proper Lorentz transformations (i.e. those simultaneously satisfying $\Lambda_{\;0}^{0}> 0$ and $\text{det}\,\Lambda =1$, respectively) are considered to be physically realisable transformations?
Is it simply because by Lorentz symmetry, all Lorentz transformations must be orthochronous, since if they were not, then one could distinguish between two different inertial frames (time would be running in the opposite sense in one frame relative to another)?
Assuming the above statement is true, then, since all orthochronous Lorentz transformations are continuously connected to the identity, it follows that the physically realizable Lorentz transformations must also be proper, since improper, orthochronous Lorentz transformations cannot be continuously connected to the identity.