Consider the following: An uncharged metal sphere of radius $R$ placed in a uniform electric field $\vec{E} = E_0 \hat{z}$. The field will push positive charge to the northern surface of the sphere, and symmetrically negative charge to the southern surface. This induced charge, in turn, distorts the field in the neighborhood of the sphere. Find the potential in the region outside the sphere.
The sphere is an equipotential we can set it to zero. Then by symmtery the entire $xy$ plane is at potential zero. Then $V$ does not go to zero but rather far from the sphere the field is $E_0 \hat{z}$ we thus have $$v \to -E_0z + C.$$
Since $V = 0$ in the equatorial plane, the constant $C$ must be zero. Then the boundary condition are $$V=0~~~\text{when }r=R \\ V \to - E_0 r \cos(\theta)~~~\text{for } r >> R .$$
Using the spherical form of Laplace's equation we get that the potential outside the sphere is $$V(r , \theta) = - E_0(r - \frac{R^3}{r^2})\cos(\theta).$$
Does the uniqueness theorem of Laplace's equation guarantee that this potential would be the same potential for say any uniform electric field $\vec{E}_0$ since the boundary conditions would be the same (except maybe requiring a coordinate tranformation) even though the direction of the uniform electric field might be different?