0
$\begingroup$

A particle in box problem can be simplified to second order differential equation as:

$$ -\frac{d^2}{dx^2}\psi(x)=E\psi(x) $$

with the boundary conditions: $$ \psi(1)=\psi(0)=0 $$

The goal is to find the energy $E$ (independent of x) and the wavefunction $\psi(x)$, where $0<x<1$.

The usual method is to guess an energy $E'$, then start from $x=0$ and advance a small step $dx$ until reach $x=1$. Check if $\psi(1)=0$. If it is , the guess is right, else re-guess.

My question is how to advance, since this is a second order differential equation, we need to know $\psi(0)$ and $\psi'(0)$ to advance. However, nothing about $\psi'(0)$ is provided.

My opinion is that we can not manually set $\psi'(0)=1$ or such, since this is explicitly assume that we are in ground states.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Use finite differences. Look up the shooting method. $\endgroup$
    – march
    Commented Aug 20, 2016 at 5:15

2 Answers 2

3
$\begingroup$

Different choices of $\psi'(0)$ will just scale up and down the whole wavefunction. Because it is easy to see that if you start with a certain $\psi'(0)$ to get a solution $\psi(x)$, an IC of $C\psi'(0)$ will just yield the solution $C\psi(x)$. The solution of the equation is determined only up to a multiplicative constant, which has to be determined by normalization of the wave function.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ You remind me, after that, we need to normalize. Thanks very much! $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 20, 2016 at 5:23
  • $\begingroup$ @buzhidao You are welcome! $\endgroup$
    – velut luna
    Commented Aug 20, 2016 at 5:24
0
$\begingroup$

The usual method is to guess an energy $E′$, then start from $x=0$ and advance a small step $dx$ until reach $x=1$. Check if $ψ(1)=0$. If it is , the guess is right, else re-guess.

This simply isn't necessary. There's a simple and exact solution for this quantum system.

The SE for a particle in a 1D box with zero potential is:

$$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\psi''(x)=E\psi(x)$$

Rework to:

$$\psi''+k^2\psi=0$$ Where: $$k^2=\frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}$$

This has an exact general solution:

$$\psi(x)=A\cos kx+B\sin kx$$

Boundary conditions:

$\psi(0)=0 \implies A\cos 0=0 \implies A=0$

So: $\psi(x)=B\sin kx$

and:

$\psi(1)=0\implies B\sin k=0$

Assuming $B \neq 0$, then: $$k=n\pi$$ With $n=1,2,3,...$ (the eigenvalues, i.e. quantum number).

$$k^2=\frac{2mE_n}{\hbar^2}=n^2\pi^2$$

That gives you the values for $E_n$ and $k_n$:

$$\psi_n(x)=B\sin k_nx=B\sin(n\pi x)$$

Determine $B$ by normalising:

$$1=\int_0^1\psi_n^2(x)dx$$

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ yeah, I know this. I just want to solve it numerically. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 20, 2016 at 17:23
  • $\begingroup$ @buzhidao There is still a simplification possible if you work numerically. If you just take some arbitrary guess for the energy and calculate the wavefunction numerically, you can rescale the coordinate: $\widetilde{\psi(x)} = \psi(\lambda x)$ where you choose $\lambda$ such that the zero of $\widetilde{\psi(x)}$ is at exactly $x = 1$. Under such a rescaling the energy transforms as $\widetilde{E} = \frac{E}{\lambda^2}$ and the potential transforms as $\widetilde{V} = \frac{V}{\lambda^2}$, but in this case $V = 0$ inside it is infinite outside so it remains invariant under scaling. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 20, 2016 at 17:32

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.