1
$\begingroup$

When I learned quantum mechanics by reading Griffith's book called Introduction to quantum mechanics, I was confused by his description.

In Page 53 of the 2ed edition book, after got the recursion formula $a_{j+2}=\frac{(2j+1-K)}{(j+1)(j+2)}a_j$(First we solved the Schr$\ddot o$dinger equation $\frac{d^2\psi}{d\xi^2}=(\xi^2-K)\psi$, where $K=\frac{2E}{\hbar \omega}$, and the solution is that $\psi(\xi)=h(\xi)e^{-\xi^2/2}$. Then we expressed $h(\xi)$ in the form of power series in $\xi$, e.i $h(\xi)=\sum_{j=0}^\infty a_j\xi^j$.) the author took a approximation at very large $j$, the recursion formula becomes $a_{j+2}\approx\frac{2}{j}a_j$. Up to now, I understand everything. But the next things stuck me.

The author's words as follows,

For at very large $j$, the recursion formula becomes (approximately) $$ a_{j+2}\approx\frac{2}{j}a_j \tag{1} $$ with the (approximate) solution $$ a_j\approx\frac{C}{(j/2)!},\tag{2} $$ for some constant $C$, and this yields (at large $\xi$, where the higher powers dominate) $$ h(\xi)\approx C\sum \frac{1}{(j/2)!}\xi^j \approx C\sum\frac{1}{j!}\xi^{2j}\approx Ce^{\xi^2} \tag{3} $$

The question is that I barely understand that how to deduce equations $(2)$ and $(3)$. In particular, I think the equation $(2)$ is bizarre. And I know if I get $(2)$, I will know how to deduce $(3)$. I hope someone could help me and explain that how to deduce $(2)$.

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

I see that your problem is you can't deduce equation $(2)$.But note that Hermit polynomial is $h(\xi)=\sum_{j=0}^\infty a_j\xi^j$,and the sum start from 0.So the terms are all even.

Then using $$a_{j+2}\approx\frac{2}{j}a_j$$ we have$$\begin{align}a_j&\approx\frac{2}{j-2}a_{j-2}\\ &\approx\frac{2}{(j-2)(j-4)}a_{j-4}\\ &\approx\frac{1}{(j/2-1)(j/2-2)(j/2-3)}a_{j-6}\\ &\dots\\ &\approx\frac{a_0}{(\frac{j}{2})!} \end{align}$$ where $a_0$ is $C$ in your expression. The rest I'm sure is easy for you to complete.Just put $a_j$ back to $h(\xi)$ and make a variable substitution.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ You're welcome.You just miss something there.BTW,normally we prefer to solve harmonic oscillator problem using ladder operators,it's far easier than Hermit polynomial and have more applications in angular momentum operator,identical partical,etc.And I believe Griffiths put that part before the power series method. $\endgroup$
    – Turgon
    Commented Feb 14, 2016 at 6:08
  • $\begingroup$ Your answer is wrong, because your process violets the premise "at large $\xi$". And $C$ is just one constant, not $a_0$. $\endgroup$
    – Wang Yun
    Commented Jul 31, 2017 at 12:55
1
$\begingroup$

You're trying to solve for a series of the sum

$$h(x) = \sum_{j=0}^\infty a_j x^j $$

and you found that only even terms contribute, with

$$a_{j+2} = \text{something } a_j.$$

Since only even terms contribute, let's make our lives easier and rescale the coefficients as follows: we define $b_n \equiv a_{n/2}$ such that

$$h(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty b_n x^{2n}$$

Then for very large $n$ you have

$$b_{n+1} \simeq \frac{1}{n+1} b_n + O(1/n).$$

If you forget about the $1/n$ corrections for now, the above recursion is solved exactly for

$$b_n = \frac{C}{n!}$$

where $C$ is some constant. But that's precisely what you need to show.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ If we know $a_0$, we will get even terms, If we know $a_1$, we will get odd terms. $\endgroup$
    – Wang Yun
    Commented Feb 14, 2016 at 1:39
  • $\begingroup$ To be honest, I can't understand your answer. $\endgroup$
    – Wang Yun
    Commented Feb 14, 2016 at 2:48

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.