When I learned quantum mechanics by reading Griffith's book called Introduction to quantum mechanics, I was confused by his description.
In Page 53 of the 2ed edition book, after got the recursion formula $a_{j+2}=\frac{(2j+1-K)}{(j+1)(j+2)}a_j$(First we solved the Schr$\ddot o$dinger equation $\frac{d^2\psi}{d\xi^2}=(\xi^2-K)\psi$, where $K=\frac{2E}{\hbar \omega}$, and the solution is that $\psi(\xi)=h(\xi)e^{-\xi^2/2}$. Then we expressed $h(\xi)$ in the form of power series in $\xi$, e.i $h(\xi)=\sum_{j=0}^\infty a_j\xi^j$.) the author took a approximation at very large $j$, the recursion formula becomes $a_{j+2}\approx\frac{2}{j}a_j$. Up to now, I understand everything. But the next things stuck me.
The author's words as follows,
For at very large $j$, the recursion formula becomes (approximately) $$ a_{j+2}\approx\frac{2}{j}a_j \tag{1} $$ with the (approximate) solution $$ a_j\approx\frac{C}{(j/2)!},\tag{2} $$ for some constant $C$, and this yields (at large $\xi$, where the higher powers dominate) $$ h(\xi)\approx C\sum \frac{1}{(j/2)!}\xi^j \approx C\sum\frac{1}{j!}\xi^{2j}\approx Ce^{\xi^2} \tag{3} $$
The question is that I barely understand that how to deduce equations $(2)$ and $(3)$. In particular, I think the equation $(2)$ is bizarre. And I know if I get $(2)$, I will know how to deduce $(3)$. I hope someone could help me and explain that how to deduce $(2)$.