Why can't we use retarded times to make an expression for retarded fields instead of potentials? As far as I know it doesn't work, since the solutions produced ("retarded fields") don't satisfy Maxwell's equations, but I would like a more physical explanation, if that is possible. As a reference, one can look up Griffiths "Introduction to electrodynamics" p.423. What is it that makes potentials "special", since we know that the wave equations that potentials have to obey are derived from Maxwell's equations (that fields have to obey).
Thanks!