(Note: This post focuses on a single simple example, however I'm asking about the error in general in my logic).
Consider the infinite potential well "particle in a box" system described by
$$V(x)=\begin{cases}0&\text{if }0<x<L\\\infty&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}.$$
It's fairly easy to find the wavefunctions $\psi_n(x)=\langle E_n\vert\psi\rangle$ by solving the time independent Schroedinger equation:
$$\psi_n(x)=\sqrt\frac{2}{L}\sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{L}x\right)$$
Now, since $\mathcal{\hat H}$ is Hermitian we know there is a complete set of eigenstates $\vert E_n\rangle$ such that, for any initial state $\vert\psi,0\rangle$ we can write
$$\vert\psi,0\rangle = \sum_k a_k\vert E_k\rangle$$
The problem of evolving the state $\vert\psi,0\rangle$ in time is easily reduced to
$$\vert\psi,t\rangle = \sum_k a_k e^{-iE_n t/\hbar}\vert E_k\rangle$$
But the wavefunction of this state is given by
$$\Psi(x,t) =\sum_ka_ke^{-iE_n t/\hbar}\psi_n(x) = \sum_ka_k\sqrt{\frac 2 L}e^{-iE_n t/\hbar}\sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{L}x\right)$$
and taking $\vert\vert^2$s to obtain the probability distribution yields a time-independent function. Hence the time evolution of the probability this system is apparently trivial for any initial state, but I have heard from multiple sources and a demonstration applet that even for a superposition of two stationary states the particle oscillates throughout the box. What have I done wrong here?