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I was trying to prove it 2 ways,

1st way: $$p=mΔV$$ $$a=ΔV/t$$ $$ΔV=at$$ $$p=m*a*t$$

Remember $$F=ma$$ $$F(t)=p$$

The derivative of momentum just gives us the "regular force" since b4 that momentum = force as a function of time. NOT SURE IF THIS PART IS CORRECT thus, $$dp/dt = F$$

2nd way: if mass was constant $$p = mv$$ $$dp/dt = m(dv/dt) + v(dm/dt)$$ $$dp/dt = ma + 0, dp/dt = f$$

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  • $\begingroup$ $F = \mathrm{d}p/\mathrm{d}t$ is usually a definition (either directly or by Euler-Lagrange equation, depending on context). Now, you seem to be taking $F = ma$, but this is not always correct, because $\dot{m} = 0$ might not be true. $\endgroup$
    – Stan Liou
    Commented Jun 11, 2014 at 0:02
  • $\begingroup$ so if mass was a constant, would the first proof be correct? $\endgroup$
    – user50279
    Commented Jun 11, 2014 at 0:11
  • $\begingroup$ As garyp explains in his answer, the relation $F=dp/dt$ in mechanics is valid only if mass is constant. So your second derivation is fine. If mass varies (the body continuously loses parts), $F=dp/dt$ does not hold. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 11, 2014 at 11:33

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$F = \mathrm{d}p/\mathrm{d}t$ follows directly from $F=ma$ and the definition of mechanical momentum $p=mv$. $F=ma$ is validated ultimately by experiment. That's all that's needed to say. Newton' second law in any form is valid only for constant mass systems. (For some reason that's a theme here lately.)

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The first proof isn't quite right for what you're trying to do.

For a constant mass the impulse momentum theorem states that the change in the momentum is equal to the impulse delivered to the object by the forces action on it. If we consider changes which occur over a very short period of time we can write the change in the momentum as,

$$ \Delta \vec{p} = m \Delta v,$$

and the impulse as.

$$ \vec{J} = \vec{F} \Delta t $$

Newtons second law states that $\vec{F}=m \Delta \vec{v}/ \Delta t$, substituting this into our expression for $\vec{J}$ we get,

$$ \vec{J} = \left( \Delta \vec{v}/ \Delta t \right) \Delta t = m \Delta \vec{v} = \Delta \vec{p}$$

Now to extend the result for a force applied over a finite time interval of length $T$ we integrate to get the above,

$$ \Delta p = J = \int_0^T F(t) dt $$

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Force is defined as $dP/dt=F$.

It is equally valid for both constant and varying mass systems. just that $F=ma$ is insufficient in varying mass system. You need to add the thrust force ( $vdm/dt$) also.

The general formula is $dp/dt=d(mv)/dt=vdm/dt+ma$ (using product rule).

But yes at the core level it is simply defined as such.

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  • $\begingroup$ This is wrong. See Wikipedia and this answer. Furthermore, $F=dp/dt$ is not the definition of force. Force is what an ideal spring scale measures. $\endgroup$
    – garyp
    Commented Jun 11, 2014 at 12:15

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