in classical physics, when a charged particle oscillates, it emits an electromagnetic wave, and the frequency of the wave depends on the frequency with which the particle oscillates. But in quantum physics, when an excited atom emits a photon, the energy of the photon depends on the magnitude of the quantum leaps that the emitting electron makes (if it jumps one level, the photon will have a certain energy; if it jumps two, a greater energy, and so on). So the frequency of the electromagnetic wave that corresponds to the photon will depend on the amplitude of the quantum leaps made by the electron. I don't understand why these two cases are so different. In analogy with the classical case, shouldn't the frequency of the wave emitted by the atom depend on the frequency with which the electron makes quantum jumps? Or is there a quantum explanation of the classical case that I don't understand? I know that classical physics cannot be used to explain quantum phenomena, but it seems strange to me that there is this asymmetry in the two cases. Sorry in advance if the question is dumb; I am approaching quantum physics because it is a topic that I am very passionate about, but I have a totally different background ... thanks if you can clarify me in a simple way!

In classical physics, when a charged particle oscillates, it emits an electromagnetic wave, and the frequency of the wave depends on the frequency with which the particle oscillates.

But in quantum physics, when an excited atom emits a photon, the energy of the photon depends on the magnitude of the quantum leaps that the emitting electron makes (if it jumps one level, the photon will have a certain energy; if it jumps two, a greater energy, and so on). So the frequency of the electromagnetic wave that corresponds to the photon will depend on the amplitude of the quantum leaps made by the electron. I don't understand why these two cases are so different. In analogy with the classical case, shouldn't the frequency of the wave emitted by the atom depend on the frequency with which the electron makes quantum jumps? Or is there a quantum explanation of the classical case that I don't understand? I know that classical physics cannot be used to explain quantum phenomena, but it seems strange to me that there is this asymmetry in the two cases. Sorry in advance if the question is dumb; I am approaching quantum physics because it is a topic that I am very passionate about, but I have a totally different background ... thanks if you can clarify me in a simple way!