Skip to main content
2 of 4
added 6 characters in body
Emilio Pisanty
  • 135.4k
  • 33
  • 358
  • 677

How can 1/V be equal to 0 in Boyle's Law?

In relation to ideal gases, Boyle's Law states that pressure is inversely proportional to volume under constant temperature. In other words,

$$ P \propto 1/V $$

Below is a graph that plots pressure, $P$, against inverse volume, $1/V$.

Graph of pressure against inverse volume at constant temperature

How can $1/V$ ever equal zero? How is this possible?

Sam
  • 95
  • 1
  • 1
  • 8