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1 answer
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Why do we rule out orbits with non-constructive interference for the atom? [duplicate]

It is said that de Broglie explained the quantization of Bohr's orbitals with the idea of the "matter wave" of the electron being forced to have orbits where it can interfere constructively ...
Marco Disce's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
237 views

Why does a stable orbit of $H$ atom contain an integer number of de Broglie wavelengths? [duplicate]

I was trying to understand why a stable orbit of a hydrogen atom has to satisfy that the orbit length must be a multiple of de Broglie wavelength. I have seen some related questions like This. But ...
Jaseon Quanta's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
1k views

If Bohr model is outdated and we know that there is no such thing as an "electron orbital circumference" then how is $2\pi r=n\lambda$ still valid?

We know that Bohr model is outdated and we know that there is no such thing as an "electron orbital circumference" then how is $2\pi r=n\lambda$ still valid? Edit : If the electrons for higher ...
ami_ba's user avatar
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22 votes
5 answers
13k views

Why does electron orbital circumference have to be in multiples of de Broglie wavelengths?

Electron orbit circumferences have to be in multiples of its de Broglie wavelength, but what do those 2 have in common?
radial9174's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
4k views

Bohr / De Broglie postulate (what does $n λ= 2 π r$ imply)

From the Bohr/De Broglie postulate we have n λ = 2πr where λ is the De-Broglie wavelength , r is the radius corresponding to n and n is the quantum number. An electron in the state n=2 has more ...
abhishek bhat's user avatar