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If there is a spin-0 structure and i differentiate it with respect to a space dimension, does it become a spin-1 structure?

It might be a naive question but i was wondering what a derivative can do regarding spin. If there is a Riemann scalar it is clear that its an invariant object under tensor transformation and it does ...
Iosuf's user avatar
  • 153
2 votes
1 answer
634 views

Covariant derivative on $n$-forms

I am new to form notation. I have recently read that one can write (non-abelian) gauge theory in terms of forms. I am stuck and can't derive this equation below: $$ \nabla_{A} \alpha_p = d \alpha_p + ...
physicsdude's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
164 views

Is there a equivalent theorem for closed form/ exact form for derivative with respect to fields

For a vector (one-form) $A_\mu$, when \begin{eqnarray} \partial_{[\mu}A_{\nu]}=0 \end{eqnarray} then, there exists a scalar $\phi$ such that \begin{eqnarray} A_\mu =\partial_\mu\phi \end{eqnarray} ...
KayS's user avatar
  • 91
0 votes
2 answers
678 views

Derivative with respect to the spacetime derivative of a field $\phi$

I've encountered the following notation several times (for example, when discussing Noether's Theorem): $$\frac{\partial L}{\partial(\partial_\mu \phi)}$$ And it's not immediately clear to me what ...
aquirdturtle's user avatar
  • 2,135
1 vote
1 answer
449 views

Covariant and contravariant derivatives in Klein-Gordon equation

Whilst exposing how a scalar product for the solutions of the Klein-Gordon equation (written as $(\Box + m^2)\varphi(x)=0$) can be derived, my textbook starts from the following system \begin{cases} \...
lucia de finetti's user avatar