Sorry if this is a dumb question, but I'm only starting to get to grips with this quantum malarkey. Anyway...
Suppose I have two friends, Alice and Bob, both of whom have a random number generator. Alice's number generator will produce a number between 1 and 4, giving a probability density of:
A=[0.25 0.25 0.25 0.25] for each number possibility
Bob has the same generator, but his is faulty and will only give a number between 2 and 4, producing this probability density:
B=[0 0.33 0.33 0.33]
If Alice and Bob randomly select one of their generators and tell me what the number produced is, then it is a trivial matter using classical probability to calculate an odds/likelihood ratio as to which machine was used. But how does this situation work with quantum math?
Quantizing this problem (as far as I gather) produces two kets:
$|A\rangle = \left[\sqrt{\frac{1}{4}} \sqrt{\frac{1}{4}} \sqrt{\frac{1}{4}} \sqrt{\frac{1}{4}}\right]$ = [0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5]
$|B\rangle = \left[\sqrt{0} \sqrt{\frac{1}{3}} \sqrt{\frac{1}{3}} \sqrt{\frac{1}{3}}\right]$ = [0 0.58 0.58 0.58]
Presumably this can then be expressed as a superposition:
$$|\Psi\rangle = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} (|A\rangle \otimes |B\rangle)$$
But then, so what? Where does this get me in terms of producing a quantum version of the standard likelihood ratio?
Or am I barking up the wrong tree?
All help appreciated :) Thanks!