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I'm reading through David Tong's notes on the quantum hall effect, and I'm stuck understanding his argument for the filling fraction of hierarchy states. The relevant discussion is under A Quantum Hall Liquid of Quasi-Holes in section 3.3.1.

DT argues that the wavefunction for anyons with statistical parameter $\alpha = 1/m$ should be (ignoring the normalization constant): $$\Pi_{j<k}\left(\eta_j - \eta_k\right)^{2p+\alpha}e^{-\sum_{i}\left|\eta_{i}\right|^2/4l_B^2}$$

He then goes on to claim that

The maximum angular momentum of a given quasi-excitation is $N (2p \pm 1/m)$ where the $\pm$ sign is inherited from the charge of the quasi-excitation.

Question Why would a quasi-particle have a different maximum angular momentum than a quasi-hole? Expanding the polynomial in the front yields a monomial of degree $𝑁(2𝑝 +1/𝑚)$ in either case.

I've tried looking up references on hierarchy states in the FQHE but I can't find anything which reproduces this counting argument.

TIA.

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There appears to be a number of typos in that section unfortunately. The correct expression should be $\alpha = \pm 1/m$. The corrected formulae are used in the corresponding online lectures.

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