2
$\begingroup$

For a multi-particle system, superposition is in some sense equivalent to entanglement; with the Dirac field being treated as classical under second quantization, for example, we could at least argue that any simple tensor product of single-particle states (whether or not they are spatially localized!) corresponds to a single physical reality, and thus does not contain meaningful superposition. Superposition in this context is rather the necessity for the overall state to be written as a sum of such tensor products, that is, entanglement.

In this vein, here's my question: are we really sure that a complex macroscopic object, when evolved via quantum field theory, approaches a highly entangled state? Or is it possible that it actually tends to a separable one? Like, maybe it tends to a product of states that are fairly well, though not perfectly, localized, much like typical atomic orbitals. In this case you wouldn't need an objective collapse theory to explain the quantum to classical transition.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, it is possible, but likely cannot be used as an explanation for the classical behavior of macroscopic objects. But who knows, there might be a way to make it work. See this question/answers physics.stackexchange.com/questions/371080/… $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 10 at 23:54
  • $\begingroup$ "Are we really sure that a complex macroscopic object, when evolved via quantum field theory, approaches a highly entangled state?" I am not aware of any sense in which a macroscopic object tends towards a more entangled state, much less a highly entangled one. Do you have an example of this? A macroscopic object has severe limits on the entanglement it contains, and interactions with its external environment - decoherence - would naturally serve to lessen its internal entanglement. That would be mostly the case with superposition as well. $\endgroup$
    – DrChinese
    Commented Jun 11 at 14:46
  • $\begingroup$ @DrChinese So does that mean a macroscopic system tends to be close to a product state, and therefore the quantum to classical transition is already resolved? I was under the impression it was an outstanding problem, but I really wasn't sure. Do you have a reference where I can read more about that? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 11 at 17:14

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.