I am taking Analytical Mechanics, and in Goldstein's book, chapter 6 (page 241) about linear oscillations, he says the following:
"... $\eta_i=Ca_ie^{-i\omega t}$ (6.11) ... It is understood of course that it is the real part of (6.11) that is to correspond to the actual motion."
Equation 6.11 is the solution for the equation $T_i\ddot{\eta_i}+V_i\eta_i=0$ (1).
I understand why we chose the solution to be of the form 6.11.
It is also clear to me that if 6.11 is a solution to (1), then its real and imaginary parts will also be solutions, and also that the solution of (1) must be real, as it is a real homogenous linear differential equation.
What I don't understand is why we say that (only) the real part corresponds to the actual motion of the system.
In addition, wouldn't it be better if we denoted the solution to the equation (1) as $\eta_{real}$,and the solution in eq. 6.11 as $\eta_{complex}$?
(I read this and this before posting, but I don't get it yet...)