Books/exams often write something like "a homogeneously charged sphere"/"a homogeneously charged rod" - I am unsure what exactly is meant.
Take the example of a sphere with radius $R$. I could interpret the statement as $dq(\vec{x})$ should be independent of the position $\vec{x}$ inside the volume. Suggesting that
$$ \rho = \frac{Q}{2\pi^2 r^2 R sin\theta} $$ is the charge density because then $$ dq=\rho dV = \frac{Q}{2\pi^2 r^2 R sin\theta} r^2 sin\theta d\theta d\phi dr = \frac{Q}{2\pi^2R} d\theta d\phi dr $$ which is independent of $\vec{x}$ and also still gives the right overall charge when integrated over the sphere. I believe this is what Jackson does when talking about equation (3.132) in his book.
On the other hand you could also say that $\rho$ itself should not depend on $\vec{x}$ and therefore it is just $\rho = \frac{Q}{\frac{4}{3} \pi R^3}$. But then I don't understand why Jackson has a factor of $r^2$ in the denominator for a uniform charge density (see the link).
As far as I can tell the different charge distributions lead to different results for electric potential etc. so it matters greatly which one is actually the uniform/equally distributed one. Can someone help me out - which one is the correct expression? Thanks!
EDIT: I finally found the right answer: The factor multiplying the area (volume) element has to be constant if the surface (volume) charge density is constant. Therefore we need no variable factors in the case of a charged sphere