3
$\begingroup$

Books/exams often write something like "a homogeneously charged sphere"/"a homogeneously charged rod" - I am unsure what exactly is meant.

Take the example of a sphere with radius $R$. I could interpret the statement as $dq(\vec{x})$ should be independent of the position $\vec{x}$ inside the volume. Suggesting that

$$ \rho = \frac{Q}{2\pi^2 r^2 R sin\theta} $$ is the charge density because then $$ dq=\rho dV = \frac{Q}{2\pi^2 r^2 R sin\theta} r^2 sin\theta d\theta d\phi dr = \frac{Q}{2\pi^2R} d\theta d\phi dr $$ which is independent of $\vec{x}$ and also still gives the right overall charge when integrated over the sphere. I believe this is what Jackson does when talking about equation (3.132) in his book.

On the other hand you could also say that $\rho$ itself should not depend on $\vec{x}$ and therefore it is just $\rho = \frac{Q}{\frac{4}{3} \pi R^3}$. But then I don't understand why Jackson has a factor of $r^2$ in the denominator for a uniform charge density (see the link).

As far as I can tell the different charge distributions lead to different results for electric potential etc. so it matters greatly which one is actually the uniform/equally distributed one. Can someone help me out - which one is the correct expression? Thanks!

EDIT: I finally found the right answer: The factor multiplying the area (volume) element has to be constant if the surface (volume) charge density is constant. Therefore we need no variable factors in the case of a charged sphere

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

A charge density is something that you integrate over space to get a total charge. This means that you have to be careful what you mean when you write down its functional form—the total integrated charge depends on both the charge density $\rho$ and the integration measure (that is, the Jacobian for your particular coordinate system). The uniform charge density $\rho_U$ is the one for which $Q = \int dV \rho_U \propto V$, meaning that the total charge in any region is proportional to the volume of that region. In Cartesian coordinates, that means that $\rho_U(x,y,z)$ is constant. In spherical coordinates, you need $\rho_U(r,\theta,\phi) \propto \frac{1}{r^2 \sin \theta}$ to cancel out the $r^2 \sin \theta$ in the Jacobian.

This is a subtle issue with lots of trickiness when you try to generalize, but the abstract idea of "something you can integrate" as opposed to "something that's a function" is really important in math and physics. In more abstract language they're called "differential forms", and the operation of going from a function $\rho$ to the integrate-able thing $\rho dV$ is called the "Hodge star." You should learn this stuff the regular multivariable-calculus way first, but I say this just because the whole theory is very satisfying and fills in these tricky notions super well when you get there :)

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ This doesn't address the entire question asked in the post. I believe the main question is on homogeneity. $\endgroup$
    – Triatticus
    Commented Apr 3 at 13:41
  • $\begingroup$ So is $\rho = Q/(4/3 \pi R^3)$ wrong (contrary to what is implied e.g here: photonics101.com/fs-charge-configurations/… where $rho$ itself is constant)? $\endgroup$
    – F L
    Commented Apr 3 at 19:13

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.