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P&S on page 213 arrive at the following identity for the two-point function (eq. 7.5)

$$\langle \Omega|\phi(x)\phi(y)|\Omega\rangle={\sum_{\lambda} \int \dfrac{d^4p}{(2\pi)^4}\dfrac{ie^{-ip.(x-y)}}{p^2-m_{\lambda}^2+i\epsilon}}|\langle \Omega|\phi(0)|\lambda_0\rangle|^2.\tag{7.5}$$

This is done by using the following resolution of the identity $$ \textbf{1}=|\Omega\rangle \langle \Omega| + {\sum_{\lambda}} \int \dfrac{d^3p}{(2\pi)^3} \dfrac{1}{2E_p(\lambda)} |\lambda_p\rangle \langle \lambda_p|.\tag{7.2}$$

If one follows the derivation in P&S then I don't see why eq. 7.5 shouldn't hold for a two-point function consisting of any two observables $O(x)O(y)$. the singular pole structure of the two-point function actually comes from the above resolution of the identity and is not inherent to the two-point $\phi$ function. In other words, I'm saying that the following should hold as well:

$$\langle \Omega|O(x)O(y)|\Omega\rangle={\sum_{\lambda} \int \dfrac{d^4p}{(2\pi)^4}\dfrac{ie^{-ip.(x-y)}}{p^2-m_{\lambda}^2+i\epsilon}}|\langle \Omega|O(0)|\lambda_0\rangle|^2.$$

In particular this should hold for, say, $O(x)=\pi(x)$, the variable conjugate to $\phi$. Hence I can also conclude that the LSZ reduction formula is also valid for any type of observables (i.e. we can relate the $S$-matrix elements to the vacuum expectation value of any kind of observables). So my question would be: Am I correct in this regard or am I missing something?

Of course I suspect why this is done particularly for $\phi$ two-point/$n$-point function (for LSZ) is that we can then directly relate the $S$-matrix elements to the fully connected amputated Feynman diagrams via Gell-Mann Low Theorem.

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    $\begingroup$ related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/784436/84967 $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 17, 2023 at 18:29
  • $\begingroup$ @AccidentalFourierTransform: Thanks. It seems you're saying that this is indeed true for any kind of correlation functions. The thing that still confuses me though is that the pole structure can be traced back to the resolution of the identity which can be traced back to our convention of normalizing states. If we chose a different normalization convention, say $\langle p|p\rangle=1$ (non Lorentz invariant), then wouldn't the two point function have no pole structure at all? And hence it won't be the green's function. $\endgroup$
    – Leonid
    Commented Dec 17, 2023 at 18:55
  • $\begingroup$ poles do not depend on arbitrary choices (such as normalization, etc). E.g., the state $|\vec p\rangle$ enters LSZ twice: one in $1=|\vec p\rangle\langle\vec p|$ and one in $\langle 0|\phi(x)|\vec p\rangle=e^{ipx}$. The pole is invariant under $|\vec p\rangle\mapsto f(\vec p)|\vec p\rangle$. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 18, 2023 at 20:51
  • $\begingroup$ @AccidentalFourierTransform: Could you please give a more detailed answer? I just don't see how you reached the conclusion that the pole is invariant based on what you wrote. If you want you can write an answer and I can accept it. $\endgroup$
    – Leonid
    Commented Dec 20, 2023 at 21:40

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