I'm reading the section on the LSZ reduction formula in Schwartz's QFT book and he talks about the action of free fields in the formula. Specifically he says (sec. 6.1.1, p. 73):
The LSZ reduction says that to calculate an S-matrix element, multiply the time-ordered product of fields by some $\square + m^2$ factors and Fourier transform. If the fields $\phi(x)$ were free fields, they would satisfy $(\square + m^2)\phi(x)=0$ and so the $(\square_i + m^2)$ terms would give zero. However, as we will see, when calculating amplitudes, there will be factors of propagators $\frac{1}{\square + m^2}$ for the one-particle stales. These blow up as $(\square + m^2)\rightarrow 0$. The LSZ formula guarantees that the zeros and infinities in these terms cancel, leaving a non-zero result.
He talks about the $\square+m^2$ terms giving zero like that's a bad thing, but isn't that what we want? If the fields are free fields then the $S$-matrix will simply be the identity and so the matrix element will vanish, $$\langle f|S|i\rangle=\langle f|i\rangle=0,$$ for distinct initial and final asymptotic states. So why would we want those terms in the LSZ formula to be non-zero for free fields?
For reference the form of the LSZ formula Schwartz is referring to is $$\langle f|S|i\rangle=\left[i\int\mathrm{d}^4x_1\,e^{-ip_1x_1}(\square_1+m^2)\right]\cdots\left[i\int\mathrm{d}^4x_n\,e^{ip_nx_n}(\square_n+m^2)\right]\langle\Omega|T\{\phi(x_1)\cdots\phi(x_n)\}|\Omega\rangle.$$