In my physics textbook the kinetic energy of a rigid body that rotates around a point( like a pendulum) is derived this way:
$$\sum_{n=1}^{N}\dfrac{1}{2}m_nv^2_n = \sum_{n=1}^{N}\dfrac{1}{2}m_n(\omega r)^2=\sum_{n=1}^{N}\dfrac{1}{2}m_n(\omega r_n)^2=\dfrac{1}{2}I\omega ^2 $$
where $\omega$ is angular velocity, and r is the radius.
This last member of this equation doesn't have trace of linear velocity, I suppose because from the chosen frame of reference the object is only rotating, by applying Huygens-Steiner we get: $ \dfrac{1}{2}I\omega ^2 $=$\dfrac{1}{2}(I_C+Md^2)\omega ^2 $=$\dfrac{1}{2}I_C\omega ^2+\dfrac{1}{2}(Md^2)\omega ^2$=$\dfrac{1}{2}I_C\omega ^2+\dfrac{1}{2}MV_C ^2$
where Vc is the velocity of center of mass and Ic is the momentum of inertia and d the distance of the center of mass.
In this case we do have a 'linear' velocity, since from this frame of reference we have the center of mass that isn't rotating.
My question is: Can we always calculate the energy of a rigid body with this $\dfrac{1}{2}I\omega ^2 $ , even when the body isn't rotating around a fixed point( an example could be a ball that got kicked and is moving and rotating)? My idea was to use an axis that goes through the Instant centre of rotation so we would only see a pure rotation. Is it more convenient to use this version of the formula $\dfrac{1}{2}I_C\omega ^2+\dfrac{1}{2}MV_C ^2$ ?