Mechanical power is normally defined as $P = \mathrm{d}W/\mathrm{d}t$, and work is normally defined as $W = \vec F \cdot \vec x$. Today an undergrad pointed out a confusion he had from Griffiths' E&M book where he has the line
$$P = \frac{\mathrm{d}W}{\mathrm{d}t} = \vec F \cdot \vec v$$
Which is a definition of power I had seen before. But the student was confused because it seems like, if you have a time dependent force $\vec F(t)$, the math should work out like:
$$P = \frac{\mathrm{d}W}{\mathrm{d}t} = \frac{\mathrm{d}\vec F(t)}{\mathrm{d}t} \cdot \vec x + \vec F \cdot \frac{\mathrm{d}\vec x(t)}{\mathrm{d}t}$$
(From the product rule.)
However, I've never seen the above formula, so I'm guessing it's wrong. Also, it clashes with the $\vec F \cdot \vec v$ version that I'm pretty sure works completely fine with a time dependent force.
I gave him a pretty weak answer and warned him that it's probably not correct: I told him that if you start with the differential form of work, $dW = \vec F \cdot d \vec x$, it seems to assume that the force stays the same in that tiny $d\vec x$, so it's constant there, and then dividing both by $dt$ gives you the equation we're looking for.
Wikipedia seems to say something similar, basically using the step of $d\vec x = \vec v \ dt$ to get $\vec F \cdot \vec v$, which also assumes that $\vec v$ is constant over $d \vec x$.
So, assuming one of those are correct, I see how they get $\vec F \cdot \vec v$. But what's the flaw in the product rule thing?