2
$\begingroup$

I am reading this paper: "Magnetic monopoles in gauge field theories", by Goddard and Olive. I don't understand some scale transformations that appear in Page 1427.

Start from the energy expression in page 1426, the energy in weak interaction theory can be written as $$H=T_\phi+T_W+V, \tag{7.1}$$ where $T_\phi, T_W$ and $V$ represent scalar field kinetic part (scalar field $\phi$), Yang-Mills term (gauge field $W$), and scalar potential, respectively. With $$ \begin{aligned} T_\phi[\phi, W] & =\int \mathrm{d}^D x F(\phi)\left(\mathscr{D}^i \phi\right)^{\dagger} \mathscr{D}^i \phi, \\ T_W[W] & =\frac{1}{4} \int \mathrm{d}^D x G_a^{i j} G_{a i j}, \\ V[\phi] & =\int \mathrm{d}^D x U(\phi) . \end{aligned} \tag{7.2-7.4} $$ It is assumed that $F$ and $U$ are positive functions of $\phi$ involving no derivatives.

Under the scale transformation $$ \begin{gathered} \phi(\boldsymbol{x}) \rightarrow \phi_\lambda(\boldsymbol{x})=\phi(\lambda \boldsymbol{x}), \\ W(\boldsymbol{x}) \rightarrow W_\lambda(\boldsymbol{x})=\lambda W(\lambda \boldsymbol{x}), \end{gathered} \tag{7.5} $$ we find that $\mathcal{D}_\mu \phi(\mathbf{x})\rightarrow \lambda \mathcal{D}_\mu \phi(\lambda\mathbf{x}), \mathbf{G}_{\mu \nu}(\mathbf{x})\rightarrow \lambda^2\mathbf{G}_{\mu \nu}(\lambda \mathbf{x})$, then $$ \begin{aligned} T_\phi\left[\phi_\lambda, W_\lambda\right] & =\lambda^{2-D} T_\phi[\phi, W], \\ T_W\left[W_\lambda\right] & =\lambda^{4-D} T_W[W], \\ V\left[\phi_\lambda\right] & =\lambda^{-D} V[\phi] . \end{aligned} \tag{7.6} $$

One conclusion of such transformation is that, if $D=3$ and $\phi$ denotes the Higgs, the energy has a unique minimum with respect to $\nu$ at some finite value, since the energy diverges when $\nu\rightarrow 0$ or $\nu \rightarrow \infty$. While for pure Yang-Mills theory, we don't have such minimum, since the energy varies monotonically with $\nu$.

$My\ question\ is:$ why the fields are scaled the way shown in (7.5)? Why there is a $\lambda$ factor before $W$ and not $\phi$? Is this $\lambda$ a dimensional quantity?

$\endgroup$
0

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$
  1. The specific scaling (7.5) originates from a dilation/dilatation of space $x\to \lambda x$ (and similarly for space-derivatives) used in the proof of a generalized Derrick's No-Go theorem, cf. e.g. this Phys.SE post.

  2. There is no dilation/dilatation of target space the scalar field $\phi$, however the gauge field $W$ should scale since the different terms in the gauge covariant derivative should scale homogeneously.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks, cool! Each term in the gauge covariant derivative should scale homogeneously! Works. $\endgroup$
    – Daren
    Commented Jul 17, 2023 at 1:20

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.