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If object A's momentum is decreased, will it produce less force on object B upon collision, in comparison to a situation where A object had greater momentum?

If this is true, does it follow that the velocity of an object is proportional to the amount of force it can produce on another object?

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Regarding your first question, since the net force on an object equals its change in momentum, the force on B will be greater the greater the change in momentum of A in the collision.

Regarding the second question, it follows that, for a given mass, the change in velocity (not the velocity) is proportional to the amount of force.

Hope this helps.

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  • $\begingroup$ so if a car at 20km/h hits a person, vs the same car at 40km/h hits a person, would dv/dt on impact be greater for the latter, thus the car at 40km/h produces more force on the person? $\endgroup$
    – mar01
    Commented Jun 5, 2023 at 3:39
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    $\begingroup$ @mar01 Which will result in the greater change in momentum of the person for conservation of momentum? $\endgroup$
    – Bob D
    Commented Jun 5, 2023 at 11:35
  • $\begingroup$ intuitively speaking, more force would be exerted on the person when hit by a 40km/h car. Since force is proportional to change in momentum, the person will have a greater change in momentum when hit at 40km/h? $\endgroup$
    – mar01
    Commented Jun 5, 2023 at 12:08
  • $\begingroup$ Don't go by intuition. For simplicity, assume the person is initially at rest and the collision is perfectly inelastic so that both the car and person move together after the collision. If you apply conservation of momentum you will see that the persons change in momentum is greater when the initial velocity of the car is greater, ergo, the person experiences a greater force the greater the car initial velocity. $\endgroup$
    – Bob D
    Commented Jun 5, 2023 at 12:53

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