Update: I made a number of mistakes in the original version of this post, although I think all the big ideas are right. I tried to fix everything, but I wouldn't be at all surprised if I've made additional errors.
I'm pretty sure that this is a very hard problem! I think I know how to get started, but I doubt I can finish.
I'll work in Schwarzschild coordinates, with $c=1$, Schwarzschild radius $R$, and $(+---)$ signature, so the metric is
$$
ds^2=(1-R/r)dt^2-(1-R/r)^{-1}dr^2-r^2(d\theta^2+\sin^2\theta\,d\phi^2).
$$
All the action can be taken to lie in the equatorial plane $\theta=\pi/2$.
For a particle traveling on a geodesic in this geometry, the energy-like conserved quantity (i.e., the one arising from time-translation invariance of the metric) is $u_0$ where $u$ is the 4-velocity. I'll call this quantity $E$ (it's really energy per unit mass):
$$
E=\left(1-{R\over r}\right)\left(dt\over d\tau\right).
$$
I'm going to assume that this quantity is conserved even for our particle whizzing along in the tube. I'm pretty sure this is the correct generalization of the assumption that the constraint forces due to the tube do no work. I think you could prove this by looking at the physics in a local inertial reference frame in which the tube is at rest as the particle whizzes by. In that frame, the above energy conservation law is equivalent to the statement that the particle's speed is constant, which follows from a special-relativistic analysis in that frame, because the tube pushes in a direction perpendicular to the velocity.
Next we use the fact that the four-velocity has unit norm:
$$
1=u_\mu u^\mu=(1-R/r)\dot t^2-(1-R/r)^{-1}\dot r^2-r^2\dot\phi^2,
$$
where dots mean $d/d\tau$.
Divide through by $\dot t^2$:
$$
\dot t^{-2}=1-{R\over r}-\left(1-{R\over r}\right)^{-1}\left({dr\over dt}\right)^2-r^2\left({d\phi\over dt}\right)^2.
$$
Express $\dot t$ in terms of the energy, and rearrange:
$$
\left(1-{R\over r}\right)^{-1}\left(dr\over dt\right)^2+r^2\left(d\phi\over dt\right)^2
=1-{R
\over r}-\left(1-R/r\over E\right)^2.
$$
Say the particle starts from rest at position $r_0$. Then $E=(1-R/r_0)^{1/2}$. So
$$
dt=\sqrt{(1-R/r)^{-1}(dr/d\phi)^2+r^2\over 1-R/r-(1-R/r)^2/(1-R/r_0)}\,d\phi.
$$
If our initial points are $(r_0,0)$ and $(r_0,\alpha$), then the quantity we want to minimize is
$$
t=\int_0^\alpha \sqrt{(1-R/r)^{-1}(dr/d\phi)^2+r^2\over 1-R/r-(1-R/r)^2/(1-R/r_0)}\,d\phi.
$$
You can in principle use standard calculus of variations techniques from here to get $r(\phi)$.
That's enough for me! You said in the comments that you'd be happy with just the functional. Are you happy?