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In the double slit experiment, we got an electron detector screen. Now, there’re 2 cases:

  1. If we don’t have an electron detector screen (which means we don’t “look” at and interfere with electron in any way, then reversing the laws of physics tells that: electron will exactly go back in the same trajectory to get back to the electron beam source.
  2. If we have a detector screen, then electron will be disturbed. If we try reversing the physics law, then electron won’t go to the original location (source) and could be fluctuated (who knows how).

In both cases, electron in reality doesn’t try to move in the opposite direction of screen. So when we say reversing the physics law, I get an impression that we check it mathematically. How do we know that in case 1, we’re sure that reversing physics law means electron goes back to source and in case 2, it fluctuates and goes somewhere else?

Maybe, I truly don't understand "reversing physics law", but in theory, I think it's just reversing the time, but in my question, I don't know how we use it.

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  • $\begingroup$ You are confusing the mathematical form used to model the double slit experiment, with the experimental setup, In the experimental setup time goes in one direction only, and the scattering of electrons with the double slit can be modeled successfully. There is no "electron going backward" when an experiment is done either with or without a detecting screen, $\endgroup$
    – anna v
    Commented May 25, 2023 at 4:43
  • $\begingroup$ I know that and I mention it in the question. I think you got confused ! we reverse the physics law for the above 2 cases. I wonder how we know that in case 1, reversing it will get electron to the source and in case 2, it won't ? how did we reverse the laws - is it mathematically if so how ? $\endgroup$ Commented May 25, 2023 at 8:37
  • $\begingroup$ In the classical physics experiments one can do the reverse experiments and thus confirm what reversing the time in the theories describing them predicts. Electrons are quantum mechanical entities and one cannot do a reverse experiment, imo, because of the probabilistic nature of any quantum mechanical prediction. $\endgroup$
    – anna v
    Commented May 25, 2023 at 8:48
  • $\begingroup$ While the wave function collapse is irreversible as anna v explains, the evolution of the wave function between the measurements is time reversible. After all, it is governed by the Schrödinger equation. Perhaps this is what you were interested in? $\endgroup$
    – LPZ
    Commented May 25, 2023 at 8:57
  • $\begingroup$ you can check here what the professor says: youtu.be/JzhlfbWBuQ8?t=2229 (timestamp is included) $\endgroup$ Commented May 25, 2023 at 9:26

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$^\dagger$I personally find Susskind's explanation here unnecessarily confusing. Here is what I think he means to say. I proceed to give a qualitative description of what Susskind means (or so I think). If you want a more precise, mathematical exposition see below the line.

Recall that time evolution is governed by the Schrödinger equation. Equivalently, time evolution is enacted by a unitary operator. An important property of unitary operators in this context is that they have an inverse. This just means that time evolution is mathematically reversible--just act on your state with the inverse time evolution operator.

However, there is an important circumstance in Quantum Mechanics in which the time evolution is not unitary (i.e., not reversible). This is upon performing a measurement. We say that we "collapse" a wave function into a special state known as an eigenstate upon measuring with respect to some observable quantity. This "collapse" is not reversible, so it is not unitary.

What Susskind is then saying is that in the first scenario, we perform no measurement. We imagine the electron in some initial state and time evolve it forward unitarily. That means we can evolve it backwards in time and obtain exactly the initial state.

However, in the second scenario, we do perform a measurement with the screen that the electron hits. This measurement causes a "collapse" which is an irreversible evolution of our initial state. Hence, we can no longer reverse time (evolve time backwards) to get our original state.

Overall, the main point of Susskind here is that measurements on a quantum system deeply impact the system. This is contrary to measurements on classical systems (a motionless baseball stays a motionless baseball whether you look at it or not).

$^\dagger$ I tried to balance accuracy and level of detail. For example, the precise definition of a measurement is absent from my exposition, but I don't think it is necessary to include for the point OP would like to understand. Moreover, I should explicitly say that this exposition draws from assumptions made in textbook Quantum Mechanics. So, saying "collapse" is allowed.


I proceed to give a precise mathematical exposition of the situation Susskind outlines.

In Quantum Mechanics, a system is represented by a Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$ as well as a collection of operators $\mathcal{L}(\mathcal{H})$. There is one distinguished operator $\hat{H} \in \mathcal{L}(\mathcal{H})$ known as the Hamiltonian. The Hamiltonian is the generator of time translations. This means that for $\lvert \psi(t=0) \rangle \in \mathcal{H}$ we have $$\exp({-i\hat{H}t'})\lvert \psi(t=0) \rangle = \lvert \psi(t=t') \rangle$$ where $\exp({-i\hat{H}t'})$ is known as the time evolution operator. It is aptly named because it evolves a state forward in time. Because the time evolution operator is unitary, it has an inverse: $\exp({i\hat{H}t'})$, which evolves a state backwards in time.

All Susskind is saying is that in situation 1) we have $$\exp({-i\hat{H}t'})\lvert \psi(t=0) \rangle \xrightarrow{\text{Reverse Time Evolution}} \exp({+i\hat{H}t'})\exp({-i\hat{H}t'}) \lvert \psi(t=0) \rangle = \lvert \psi(t=0) \rangle.$$ I.e. we unitarily evolve our initial state by time $t'$ and then unitarily evolve the resulting state backwards by time $t'$, resulting in exactly the original state.

In scenario 2), we have $$ \exp({-i\hat{H}t'}) \lvert \psi(t=0) \rangle \xrightarrow{\text{Measurement}} \lvert E_n \rangle \xrightarrow{RTE} \exp({+i\hat{H}t'}) \lvert E_n \rangle \neq \lvert \psi(t=0) \rangle$$ unless the initial state was $\lvert E_n \rangle$ to begin with and $\lvert E_n \rangle$ is a simultanous eigenstate of both the Hamiltonian and observable you are measuring, i.e. unless you were measuring a conserved quantity and your initial state was an eigenstate of said conserved quantity.

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  • $\begingroup$ It turns out that watching Susskind even confuses me more ! but he explains it in much clearer words then anyone in the world. I find your explanation too cumbersome for me to understand while Susskind uses simple words, but at some points, it becomes confusing. $\endgroup$ Commented May 25, 2023 at 11:49
  • $\begingroup$ The jist of my answer is: states in quantum mechanics usually evolve in time in a nice way. This nice way implies that mathematically you can reverse the time evolution you enacted. However, when you measure a state, you interrupt this nice time evolution such that you can no longer mathematically reverse the time evolution you enacted @GiorgiLagidze $\endgroup$ Commented May 25, 2023 at 11:53
  • $\begingroup$ The unitary time evolution describes the ensemble, not the individual system. The individual system does not evolve unitarily in time. I find very little of that confusing. What I do find confusing is why we are not pointing this out to students in our beginner's classes on quantum mechanics, when we are introducing these mathematical concepts without linking them to actual physical phenomenology. $\endgroup$ Commented May 25, 2023 at 14:03
  • $\begingroup$ Could you clarify what you mean by “unitary time evolution describes the ensemble, not the individual system”? @FlatterMann $\endgroup$ Commented May 25, 2023 at 22:40
  • $\begingroup$ Perhaps I am misinterpreting what you are saying, but my personal experience has been a dearth of sufficient mathematical formalism for physical phenomena. Though, I’m biased because I do enjoy focusing on the math itself. $\endgroup$ Commented May 25, 2023 at 22:49

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