On Peskin & Schroeder's QFT, page 387, the book gives a general analysis about renormalization and symmetry.
For the example of $\sigma$ mass in the linear sigma model, the classical relation is $$m-\sqrt{2\lambda}\langle\phi\rangle=0 \tag{11.104} $$
I am troubled for following sentences bellow (11.104)
Eq.(11.104) is valid at the classical level however the parameters of the Lagrangian are modified, it holds equally well when we add counterterms to the Lagrangian and then adjust these counterterms order by order. Thus, the counter term must give zero contributions to the right-hand side of Eq.(11.104). Therefore, the perturbative corrections to Eq.(11.104) must be automatically ultraviolet-finite.
My first question is, would (11.104) still holds after the quantum correction?
If we re-check the book's eq.(11.16) $$\langle\phi^N\rangle =\frac{\mu}{\sqrt{\lambda}} \tag{11.16} $$ is satisfied to all orders in perturbation theory. There is one sentence bellow (11.16) reads
the mass $m$ of the $\sigma$ field will differ from the result of the classical equations $m^2=2\mu^2=2\lambda v^2$ by terms of order ($\lambda\mu^2$).
So it appears that (11.104) no longer holds after quantum correction.
Previously, I thought (11.104) holds to all orders.
The Femi constant $G_F=\frac{1}{2v^2}$ can be measure from muon decay. (PDG: $G_F=1.1663788(7)\times 10^{-5}$ $\text{GeV}^{-5}$). This imply $v=246.22 \text{GeV}$;
From PDG 2022, Higgs mass $m_h=125.25 \text{GeV}$;
From (11.104), $\lambda=0.129383$.
My second question is would this analysis correct?