It is very confusing that 1st law be used in inertial frame. For 2nd law we have many different sayings.
On what condition is 2nd law be used in inertial observer?
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$\begingroup$ Your question is unclear. Kindly rephrase your question. From my interpretation of your question: 1st law establishes inertial frames ' existence. 2nd law is intrinsically written to link the relation between "real physical" forces with the acceleration it causes. This law need not always work in non inertial frames without correction terms, but is true in all inertial frames. For example, a ball suspended from the roof of an accelerating car, cannot obey $F_{real}=MA$ in the car's frame, we need the fictitious force $- ma_{c}$ to account for it. $\endgroup$– nickbros123Commented Apr 4, 2023 at 6:48
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$\begingroup$ I think your question has already more than one answer here: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/723604/… $\endgroup$– GiorgioP-DoomsdayClockIsAt-90Commented Apr 4, 2023 at 9:28
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The Newton's first law defines the inertial frames of reference. The other laws apply only in these frames of reference.
