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Apr 4, 2023 at 9:28 comment added GiorgioP-DoomsdayClockIsAt-90 I think your question has already more than one answer here: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/723604/…
Apr 4, 2023 at 7:38 history closed d_b
Agnius Vasiliauskas
John Rennie
Needs details or clarity
Apr 4, 2023 at 6:57 review Close votes
Apr 4, 2023 at 7:46
Apr 4, 2023 at 6:49 history edited Qmechanic
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Apr 4, 2023 at 6:48 comment added nickbros123 Your question is unclear. Kindly rephrase your question. From my interpretation of your question: 1st law establishes inertial frames ' existence. 2nd law is intrinsically written to link the relation between "real physical" forces with the acceleration it causes. This law need not always work in non inertial frames without correction terms, but is true in all inertial frames. For example, a ball suspended from the roof of an accelerating car, cannot obey $F_{real}=MA$ in the car's frame, we need the fictitious force $- ma_{c}$ to account for it.
Apr 4, 2023 at 6:45 history edited Roger V. CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 4, 2023 at 6:45 answer added Roger V. timeline score: 2
S Apr 4, 2023 at 6:33 review First questions
Apr 4, 2023 at 6:39
S Apr 4, 2023 at 6:33 history asked Faichney Lam CC BY-SA 4.0