Specifically, if it turned out the mechanism for quantum entanglement is that all particles are somehow connected to each other via wormholes (assuming that is what the conjecture actually says), it seems like that would explain the correlation without having to invoke any sort of global wavefunction or the like, while also being consistent with the idea of particles actually having well-defined classical properties prior to measurement. Is that correct, or does the very idea of wormholes itself inherently contradict the idea of locality and we'd still need some sort of global wavefunction or the like in order to preserve realism?
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asked Apr 3, 2023 at 0:43
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3$\begingroup$ “ the idea of particles actually having well-defined classical properties prior to measurement”. If particles already have well defined classical properties before measurement, then there’s no need for a non-local communication mechanism between them. They do not need to communicate, since their properties are already well-defined. “Non-local communication” between particles would imply they do not have set classical properties - that is the reason they need to “conspire” to defeat experiments measuring them. $\endgroup$– NonPartisanObservorCommented Apr 3, 2023 at 3:45
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$\begingroup$ @NonPartisanObserver, I thought the idea of having realism but not locality is that measuring one entangled particle (where a "measurement" is any interaction that releases information) changes the value of the other particle? $\endgroup$– Mikayla Eckel CifreseCommented Apr 3, 2023 at 7:28
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