2
$\begingroup$

I am reading Anthony Zee's "Quantum Field Theory in a Nutshell" (1st edition). On page 47, when evaluating the 4-point Green's function $G_{ijkl}^{(4)}$ to order $\lambda$ using Wick contraction, he writes: $$\begin{align}G_{ijkl}^{(4)}=&\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\left(\prod_m dq_m\right)e^{-\frac{1}{2}q\cdot A\cdot q}q_iq_jq_kq_l\left[1-\frac{\lambda}{4!}\sum_nq_n^4+O(\lambda^2)\right]/Z(0,0)\cr =&(A^{-1})_{ij}(A^{-1})_{kl}+(A^{-1})_{ik}(A^{-1})_{jl}+(A^{-1})_{il}(A^{-1})_{jk}\cr &-\lambda\sum_n(A^{-1})_{in}(A^{-1})_{jn}(A^{-1})_{kn}(A^{-1})_{ln}+O(\lambda^2).\end{align}\tag{I.7.10}$$ I don't understand why, when using Wick contraction, in the order $\lambda$ term, there is no term like $$\sum_n(A^{-1})_{nn}(A^{-1})_{nn}(A^{-1})_{ij}(A^{-1})_{kl}\tag{1}$$ since I can "connect" $n$ to $n$, $n$ to $n$, $i$ to $j$ and $k$ to $l$. Can someone explain it?

$\endgroup$
0

2 Answers 2

3
$\begingroup$

That diagram would be a vacuum bubble, which is cancelled by the normalization factor $1/Z(0,0)$. It corresponds to a renormalization of the vacuum state in the interacting theory relative to the free theory.

This is covered in Peskin and Schroeder, I believe in Chapter 4. I don't remember offhand if Zee discusses this or not.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

Yes, OP is right. OP's term (1) [which corresponds to Fig. I.7.1c] together with e.g.

$$\sum_n(A^{-1})_{in}(A^{-1})_{nn}(A^{-1})_{nj}(A^{-1})_{kl} \tag{2}$$

[which corresponds to Fig. I.7.1b] are in principle also there. [This is mentioned 2 paragraphs below eq. (I.7.10) in the 2nd edition.] Such terms correspond to diagrams with self-loops.

$\uparrow$ Fig. I.7.1 (Source: Ref. 1.)

  1. The simplest fix to remove self-loops (in the operator formalism) is to normal-order the interaction term $$S_{\rm int}~=~\frac{\lambda}{4!} \sum_n :q_n^4: $$ see e.g. Ref. 2.

  2. However Ref. 1 is instead using the path integral formalism in 0+0D. It turns out it is enough to only study 1PI correlation functions, such as e.g., the self-energy, as all other diagrams can be built from these. However 1PI correlation functions still contain diagrams with self-loops. These self-loops are removed via renormalization/counterterms.

References:

  1. A. Zee, QFT in a nutshell, 2010; section I.7.

  2. C. Itzykson & J.B. Zuber, QFT, 1985; p.271.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.