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Say you've got a body with position r(t), subject to a force collinear with r(t) but otherwise not specified.

So r(t) × r''(t) = 0 for all t (with x being the cross product).

Since r(t) x r''(t) = (r(t) x r'(t))',

we've got r(t) x r'(t) = c with c a constant.

When c is not the zero vector, this is a nice proof that the body is moving in a plane, since at any time its position vector is orthogonal to c. The way I understand it, the elegance comes from the fact that we're using a conserved quantity to derive the answer, without having to use any integration or infinitesimals.

Now when c = 0, the speed and position are also collinear at any given point in time.

We've got r(t + dt) = r(t) + r'(t) dt, so r(t + dt) and r(t) are collinear, and the body's motion is linear.

I've been trying to find a proof for this degenerate case that's similar to that of the general case, using a conserved quantity, but no luck so far. The natural analogue would be to use a primitive of r(t) x r'(t), but I haven't found it, either by myself or looking online.

Is this primitive known? Or would there be another similar way of proving that the motion is linear?

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  • $\begingroup$ What operator are you using × to represent? Is it the vector cross product? $\endgroup$
    – The Photon
    Commented Oct 22, 2022 at 16:08
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    $\begingroup$ Also, physicists often use p as the symbol for momentum. Using it for position is likely to lead to confusion for many readers. $\endgroup$
    – The Photon
    Commented Oct 22, 2022 at 16:10
  • $\begingroup$ Edited to address your comments - thanks @ThePhoton , and sorry for the noobishness. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 22, 2022 at 16:17

1 Answer 1

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The reason you're not able to prove it is that it's just not true.

It just goes to show that "proving" things with an informal intuition about infinitesimals is risky.

For $\mathbf{c} = \mathbf{0}$ the motion is not only not rectilinear, it's not even necessarily in a single plane!

Let's define a helper function: $$u(t) = t^3(1-t)^3$$ We have: $$u(0) = u'(0) = u''(0) = u(1) = u'(1) = u''(1) = 0$$

Let $\mathbf{e}_1, \mathbf{e}_2, \mathbf{e}_3$ be three orthogonal vectors. Define:

$$\mathbf{r}(t) = \begin{cases} u(t)\cdot\mathbf{e}_1 \text{ for } 0 \le t \le 1 \\ u(t-1)\cdot\mathbf{e}_2 \text{ for } 1 \le t \le 2 \\ u(t-2)\cdot\mathbf{e}_3 \text{ for } 2 \le t \le 3 \end{cases}$$

Easy to check that $\mathbf{r}(t) \times \mathbf{r}'(t) = \mathbf{0}$ and $\mathbf{r}(t) \times \mathbf{r}''(t) = \mathbf{0}$ but the motion is not in a single plane.

Now let's add an extra assumption that $\mathbf{r} \ne \mathbf{0}$.

In that case, the conserved quantity is the direction of $\mathbf{r}$: $$\mathbf{d}(t) = \frac{\mathbf{r}(t)}{\lVert\mathbf{r}(t)\rVert}$$

Let's compute the derivative: $$ \begin{align} \mathbf{d}' &= {\lVert\mathbf{r}\rVert}^{-2}\left(\mathbf{r}'\lVert\mathbf{r}\rVert - \mathbf{r}\cdot\frac {\mathbf{r}\cdot\mathbf{r}'}{\lVert\mathbf{r}\rVert}\right) \\ &= {\lVert\mathbf{r}\rVert}^{-3}(\mathbf{r}'(\mathbf{r}\cdot\mathbf{r}) - \mathbf{r}(\mathbf{r}\cdot\mathbf{r}')) \\ &= {\lVert\mathbf{r}\rVert}^{-3}(\mathbf{r}\times(\mathbf{r}'\times\mathbf{r})) \\ &= {\lVert\mathbf{r}\rVert}^{-3}(\mathbf{r}\times \mathbf{0}) \\ &= \mathbf{0} \end{align} $$

I used the "triple product" formula $\mathbf{a}\times(\mathbf{b}\times \mathbf{c}) = \mathbf{b}(\mathbf{c}\cdot\mathbf{a}) - \mathbf{c}(\mathbf{a}\cdot\mathbf{b})$.

So in this case indeed the direction doesn't change and hence the motion is rectilinear.

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  • $\begingroup$ Nice answer, thanks! But is it correct? You're creating a function that's not differentiable at points 1 and 2, which means r(t)×r′(t)=0 and r(t)×r′′(t)=0 is not true at these points. Since the initial assumptions don't hold anymore for the whole function, the conclusion doesn't either. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 22, 2022 at 16:53
  • $\begingroup$ The function is differentiable twice everywhere. $r'(1) = r'(2) = 0$ and $r''(1) = r''(2) = 0$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 22, 2022 at 16:55
  • $\begingroup$ Oh yes sorry my bad. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 22, 2022 at 16:56
  • $\begingroup$ Ok so just to rephrase the insight of your answer - the crux is that when c=0, those cross product constraints are easily satisfied by coming to rest at point 0, and canceling the acceleration as well. At which point you're free to switch directions without violating the constraints. The flaw in my "proof" is that it breaks down when r(t) = 0 since anything is "collinear" with 0. Setting c ≠ 0 prevents such direction-changing, passing-through-0 shenanigans. Nice, thanks a lot! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 22, 2022 at 17:06
  • $\begingroup$ @ChristopheAGUETTAZ I added a derivation that it is true for $r \ne 0$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 22, 2022 at 17:30

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