5
$\begingroup$

Say I define a time dependent vector field $\Psi(t):\mathbb{R}^d\to \mathbb{R}^d$ as reversible (also here) if, for $f(x,y)=(x,-y)$, we have:

$$ f\circ \Psi \circ f =\Psi(-t)=\Psi^{-1}(t).$$

Just to clarify $\Psi:[0,T]\times \mathbb{R}^d\to \mathbb{R}^d$. Now let $\Psi$ be some Hamiltonian dynamics $\Psi=(q,p)$, where:

$$ \frac{d q}{dt}=\nabla_p H (q,p), \ \ \ ~q(0)=x, $$ $$ \frac{d p}{dt}=-\nabla_q H (q,p), \ \ \ ~p(0)=y, $$ where $H(q,p)=H(q,-p)$. Is it obvious that $\Psi$ is reversible? Can I use Reversibility of Hamiltonian dynamics somehow?

(Note the 2nd equality $\Psi(-t)=\Psi^{-t}(t)$ follows since $(q,p)$ is a flow. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flow_(mathematics) )

$\endgroup$
2

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$
  1. A dynamical equation system with dynamical variables $z$ is called reversible if it is invariant under the combination $(t\to -t, z\to I(z))$ where $I$ is an involution$^1$, cf. Ref. 1.

  2. Main example: Any autonomous Hamiltonian $H(q,p)=H(q,-p)$ that is even in momenta describes a reversible system. Here the involution is $I(q,p)=(q,-p)$.

  3. Concerning OP's title question, it is possible to find non-reversible non-autonomous Hamiltonian systems. Think e.g. on a Hamiltonian of the form $H(q,p,t)=f(t)q+g(t)p$ for 2 appropriate functions $f,g$.

  4. More interestingly, Ref. 1 claims [e.g. around eq. (1.29)] that there exist non-reversible autonomous Hamiltonian systems.

References:

  1. J.A.G. Roberts & G.R.W. Quispel, Chaos and time-reversal symmetry. Order and chaos in reversible dynamical systems. Phys. Rep. 216 (1992) 63.

$^1$ More generally in a geometric language: If $M$ denotes the manifold of dynamical variables (sans time $t$), then the map $I:\Gamma(TM)\to \Gamma(TM)$ is a (possibly time-dependent, not necessarily integrable) mixed tensor field, such that it is pointwise an involution $\forall z\in M: I_z^2={\bf 1}_{TM}$. This is often called an almost product structure in the literature.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ For a system to be reversible, the involution in question need not be $\vec{p} \to -\vec{p}$, right? I'm thinking of (for example) a particle in a magnetic field, which is not even in $\vec{p}$ but might have an involution of $\vec{p} \to - \vec{p} + 2 q \vec{A}$ or something like that. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 22, 2022 at 12:04
  • $\begingroup$ $\uparrow$ Right. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Jul 22, 2022 at 12:10

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.