I have a maybe stupid question about Noether charges and the Poisson bracket.
If a classical field theory has a Poincare symmetry, then by using the Noether's theorem, one can write down its associated conserved charges $P^{\mu}$ which generates spacetime translations, and $M_{\mu\nu}$ which generates Lorentzian transformations.
In the Hamiltonian formalism, one can define the Poisson bracket on its phase space. Then, the Poisson brackets among these charges should form a canonical realization of the Lie algebra of the Poincare symmetry.
My question comes from a Dirac spinor $$\mathcal{L}=\bar{\psi}(i\partial\!\!\!/-m)\psi.$$
Its conjugate momentum is given by $$\Pi=\mathcal{L}\frac{\overset{\leftarrow}{\delta}}{\delta\dot{\psi}}=i\bar{\psi}\gamma^{0}=i\psi^{\dagger}.$$
Usually, the fermionic Poisson bracket of Grassmann-odd fields are defines as $$\left\{F,G\right\}_{PB}=\int d^{3}x\left\{F\left(\frac{\overset{\leftarrow}{\delta}}{\delta\psi(t,\mathbf{x})}\frac{\overset{\rightarrow}{\delta}}{\delta\Pi(t,\mathbf{x})}+\frac{\overset{\leftarrow}{\delta}}{\delta\Pi(t,\mathbf{x})}\frac{\overset{\rightarrow}{\delta}}{\delta\psi(t,\mathbf{x})}\right)G\right\},$$
which indicates the fundamental canonical relation $$\left\{\psi(t,\mathbf{x}),\Pi(t,\mathbf{y})\right\}_{PB}=\delta(\mathbf{x}-\mathbf{y}).$$
The Lorentzian transformation acts on the Dirac spinor as $$\psi^{\prime}(x)=U(\Lambda)\psi(x)=S(\Lambda)\psi(\Lambda^{-1}x), \tag{1}$$
where the operator $U(\Lambda)$ is given by $$U(\Lambda)=\exp\left\{-\frac{i}{2}\omega_{\mu\nu}J^{\mu\nu}\right\},\quad\mathrm{with}\quad J_{\mu\nu}=\frac{1}{2}\sigma_{\mu\nu}+i(x_{\mu}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{\nu}}-x_{\nu}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{\mu}})𝟙_{4\times 4}.$$
Then, according to Noether's theorem, one has the conserved charge \begin{align} M_{\mu\nu}&=\int d^{3}\mathbf{x}\psi^{\dagger}(t,\mathbf{x})\left[\frac{1}{2}\sigma_{\mu\nu}+i(x_{\mu}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{\nu}}-x_{\nu}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{\mu}})𝟙_{4\times 4}\right]\psi(t,\mathbf{x}) \\ &=-i\int d^{3}\mathbf{x}\Pi(t,\mathbf{x})\left[\frac{1}{2}\sigma_{\mu\nu}+i(x_{\mu}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{\nu}}-x_{\nu}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{\mu}})𝟙_{4\times 4}\right]\psi(t,\mathbf{x}) \\ &=-i\int d^{3}\mathbf{x}\Pi(t,\mathbf{x})J_{\mu\nu}\psi(t,\mathbf{x}). \end{align}
One can check that this charge indeed generates an infinitesimal Lorentzian transformation. i.e. $$\delta_{\omega}\psi(t,\mathbf{x})=\left\{\psi(t,\mathbf{x}),\frac{1}{2}\omega^{\mu\nu}M_{\mu\nu}(t)\right\}_{PB}=-\frac{i}{2}\omega^{\mu\nu}J_{\mu\nu}\psi(t,\mathbf{x}). \tag{2}$$
Equation (2) is just an infinitesimal version of equation (1). It can be easily verified by using the fermionic Poisson bracket.
On the other hand, if the charge $M_{\mu\nu}$ generates Lorentzian symmetry, I expect that the Poisson bracket among themselves should be realized as the Lie algebra of the Lorentzian symmetry. This is the case for a scalar field. Also, in classical mechanics, one can consider a free Newtonian particle that is Galilean invariant, then the Poisson brackets among the associated Noether charges indeed form the Lie algebra of the central extension of the Galilean algebra.
But here, the situation is very weird. The fermionic Poisson bracket is symmetric. However, the Lie brackets are anti-symmetric. It doesn't make sense to compute $$\left\{M_{\mu\nu},M_{\alpha\beta}\right\}_{PB},$$
even though the commutation relation $[J_{\mu\nu},J_{\alpha\beta}]$ fulfills a representation of the Lie algebra of the Lorentzian symmetry.
So how do $M_{\mu\nu}$ generates Lorentzian symmetry but do not fulfill a representation of the Lie algebra? Did I make any mistakes from the above calculations?