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The Center of mass frame (CM) is defined in such a way that total momentum in this frame is zero. Thus

$\vec P'=\sum (m_i\vec v_i')=\sum \big[m_i(\vec v_i-\vec u)\big] =\vec P - M\vec u=0 \tag{1} $

Where $\vec P'$ is the momentum in CM, $\vec u$ is CM's velocity WRT some inertial frame where the momentum of the system is $\vec P$. From equation (1) we get

$\vec u = \frac {\vec P}{M}\tag{2}$

Integrating this gives

$\vec R _{CM}= \frac{\sum (m_i\vec r_i)}{M}+C\tag{3}$

Now, this is the point that I am not able to grasp: Why is $C$ chosen to be $0$?

This is not the only point where momentum is zero, which was the requirement for the construction of this frame.

I believe that it has something to do with torques, but can't quite get there.

Any help would be appreciated.

Thanks

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2 Answers 2

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You write $\vec R_{CM}$, but think about what is actually meant by this?

A frame of reference has no specific position. Its positional vector can be arbitrary because different frames of reference vary in velocity or acceleration. Therefore, if you take $\vec R_{CM}$ as a position of the CM, you have the freedom of $\vec C$.

$\vec C$ can be chosen $= \vec 0$, so that $\vec R_{CM}$ is equal to the centre of mass of the set of point masses, which is nothing more than a convenient choice.

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  • $\begingroup$ So you are implying that this is just a convention? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 22, 2022 at 13:25
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, I would say so $\endgroup$
    – Chris
    Commented Mar 22, 2022 at 18:39
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We are integrating over the entire system, and hence, it is a definite integral.

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  • $\begingroup$ It is my understanding that when dealing with a physical system, any integral has definable limits. In physics, we never need a “constant of integration”. $\endgroup$
    – R.W. Bird
    Commented Mar 29, 2022 at 14:17
  • $\begingroup$ Well, that is another way to put my question, why are integration limits from 0 to $\vec r_i$ and not 0 to $\vec r_i$ + 10, for example? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 29, 2022 at 18:26

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