I am currently reading trough "Bose-Einstein Condensation and Superfluidity" by Pitaevksii and Stringari and noticed some inconsistencies in my reasoning. In Chapter 5 (Non-uniform Bose gases at zero temperature) the authors introduce the condensate wave function $\Psi$. It is futher stated that the normalization of $\Psi$ is given by $N = \int d\vec{r} |\Psi(\vec{r})|^2$, where N is the total number of atoms in the condensate. Up until this point, I think of $\Psi$ as a probability density, as I have been doing when dealing with Quantum Mechanics for the past few years.
The following sentence then really confuses me:
The modulus $|\Psi(\vec{r})|$ determines the particle density $n(\vec{r}) = |\Psi(\vec{r})|^2$ of the condensate.
My question is: How can something that describes a probability density be a quantity that represents a particle density?