I have followed two courses on QFT, which both involved renormalization by dimensional regularization. My confusion is that one of the professors claimed that dimensional regularization can only be used to regularize logarithmically divergent integrals, whereas the other professor claimed that the scheme can renormalize higher order divergencies. Let me make my question more precise.
Consider the standard integral which is computed in a dimensional regularization scheme: $$ I(n,\alpha) = \int \frac{d^np}{(p^2 + m^2)^{\alpha}} = i\pi^{n/2}\frac{\Gamma(\alpha-n/2)}{\Gamma(\alpha)}(m^2)^{n/2 - \alpha}. $$ For $\alpha=2$ and $n=4\pm\epsilon$ (depends on convention) the integral is logarithmically divergent and we can continue standardly by expanding the gamma, obtaining a $1/\epsilon$ pole and adding a counterterm to the Lagrangian. Generally, the integral is only convergent for $\alpha > n/2$. In the case of $\alpha = 1$ for example my first professor claimed that one has to introduce a Pauli-Villards cut-off in order to renormalize correctly. My second professor claims that one may use: $$ \int d^n q \frac{\partial}{\partial q^{\mu}}(q^{\mu}f(q)) = \int d^n q q^{\mu}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial q^{\mu}} f(q)\right) + n\int d^n q f(q), $$ such that one throws away the boundary term as it is a surface integral by Gauss' theorem. He states explicitly that this may be done if $f(q)$ vanishes quickly enough at infinity, but also that "analytic continuation will be implemented by ignoring the surface term irrespective of the asymptotic behaviour of the integral." If this is true/legit, one may write: $$ \int d^n q q^{\mu}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial q^{\mu}} f(q)\right) = - n\int d^n q f(q), $$ such that one can express divergent integrals in terms of finite ones.
Is the last approach correct? Is the first approach wrong? Could you comment on these two approaches?